ENCOR – ARCHITECTURE Welcome to your ENCOR-ARCHITECTURE 1. What is the goal of Layer 3 switching? A. to process packets at Layer 2 switching speeds while utilizing the scalability of routing B. to provide a better path to the Internet without using routing protocols javascript:void(0)C. to implement the routing process by using routed protocols D. to integrate all of the networking functions into one device None 2. Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.) A. To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command. B. A routed port is a physical switch port with Layer 2 capability. C. A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN. D. A routed port behaves like a regular router interface and supports VLAN subinterfaces. E. The interface vlan global configuration command is used to create a routed port. 3. Which technology does CEF switching use on Cisco hardware-based routers to forward packets? A. router general-purpose CPU B. interVLAN routing using subinterfaces C. forwarding engines implemented in specialized ASICs D. route processors using stateful switchover None 4. What type of specialized memory is used to facilitate high performance switching in Cisco multilayer switches? A. address resolution protocol (ARP) memory B. ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) C. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) memory D. content-addressable memory (CAM) None 5. Which protocol is required for Cisco Express Forwarding to be able to successfully forward packets on a multilayer switch? A. VLAN Trunking Protocol B. Cisco Discovery Protocol C. Spanning Tree Protocol D. Address Resolution Protocol E. Dynamic Trunking Protocol None 6. Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.) A. link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes B. removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches C. implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts D. static default routes E. redundant links between Layer 2 switches 7. When comparing two absolute power values, what can a wireless engineer conclude after calculating a result of -3 dB? A. The power level of interest is one tenth of the reference value. B. The power level of interest is half the reference value. C. The power level of interest is ten times the reference value. D. The value of the two power levels is the same. E. The power level of interest is double the reference value. None 8. While reviewing wireless survey reports, an intern asks a wireless engineer about the term noise floor. What is the definition of noise floor? A. Noise floor is the decreasing of the signal amplitude as it travels through free space. B. Noise floor is the smallest signal strength of the recorded noise received by a receiver. C. Noise floor is the average signal strength of the noise being received by a receiver. D. Noise floor is the maximum signal strength of the recorded noise received by a receiver. None 9. What is a simple solution to overcome the negative effects of free space path loss? A. increase the cable length of the antenna B. decrease the antenna gain C. increase the transmitter output power D. decrease the transmitter output power None 10. What technological factor limits the number of unique spatial streams that can be supported by a MIMO device? A. the number of radios B. the number of transmitters C. the number of receivers D. the processing capacity None 11. Which wireless technology allows data to be distributed across two or more radio chains in order to increase data throughput while operating on the same channel? A. narrowband B. direct sequence spread spectrum C. spatial multiplexing D. dynamic rate shifting None 12. Which wireless network topology requires that all of the access points be located within a 100 meter radius of an access switch? A. centralized wireless network B. Mobility Express wireless network C. unified wireless network D. embedded wireless network None 13. What are two benefits of deploying a centralized wireless LAN topology? (Choose two.) A. decreasing the cable length requirement when utilizing lightweight access points in an embedded wireless network topology B. convenience of enforcing security policies for all wireless users C. lowering the investment cost when utilizing lightweight access points in a Mobility Express topology D. maximizing the number of APs that can join a single WLC E. decreasing the RTT between two wireless clients on a single access point 14. What is a difference between autonomous APs that operate in a home environment and controller-based APs that operate in a corporate environment? A. Autonomous APs do not support PoE. B. Controller-based APs are known as lightweight APs and require an initial configuration to operate. C. Autonomous APs incorporate the functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device. D. Controller-based APs can be automatically configured and managed by a WLAN controller. None 15. Which type of topology supports the use of CAPWAP tunnels without the investment of a dedicated wireless LAN controller? A. embedded wireless network B. unified wireless network C. centralized wireless network D. Mobility Express None 16. What information is needed by an AP for stateful switchover (SSO) using high availability with a standby WLC? A. the standby WLC B. the group name of the SSO pair C. the IP address of both the primary and standby WLC D. the active primary WLC None 17. Which two Cisco location solutions can work with Cisco management platforms to provide real-time location services for a wireless network? (Choose two.) A. Prime Infrastructure B. Mobility Services Engine C. DNA Space D. DNA Center E. Identity Services Engine 18. What is a Cisco solution developed to improve the results of wireless device location based on RSS values received by multiple APs? A. integrating customized GPS service on campus B. using DNA Center to provide secondary location parameters C. optimizing the algorithm to use 7 APs for determining the location D. developing RF fingerprinting where each mapped area is compensated with a calibration template None 19. Which tunneling technology is used to facilitate data exchange between a lightweight AP and a WLAN controller? A. CAPWAP tunnel B. IPsec tunnel C. GRE tunnel D. overlay tunnel None 20. How is wireless client location determined based on RSS values when using three or more APs? A. comparing the RSS values to choose the location of the AP with the highest RSS received B. correlating the RSS values received by multiple APs to determine where the LAN switches that are connected to the APs intersect C. correlating the RSS values received by multiple APs to determine where they intersect D. comparing the RSS values received by multiple APs to choose the shortest straight distance None 21. A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilitates a migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design? A. Layer 2 access B. three-tier C. two-tier D. routed access None 22. What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table? A. The MAC address table is contained in CAM. ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM. B. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match C. Router prefix lookups happens in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM. D. TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables None 23. What is the difference between CEF and process switching? A. CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage. B. CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching. C. CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet. D. Process switching is faster than CEF. None 24. Which function is handled by vManage in the Cisco SD-WAN fabric? A. Establishes BFD sessions to test liveliness of links and nodes B. Distributes policies that govern data forwarding C. Performs remote software upgrades for WAN Edge. vSmart and vBond D. Establishes IPsec tunnels with nodes. None 25. Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points? A. sniffer B. monitor C. bridge D. local None 26. Which three methods does Cisco DNA Centre use to discover devices? (Choose three) A. CDP B. SNMP C. LLDP D. ping E. NETCONF F. a specified range of IP addresses 27. In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node? A. to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric B. to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric C. to advertise fabric IP address space to external network D. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric None 28. How does the RIB differ from the FIB? A. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. B. The FIB includes many routes a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination. C. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a Iist of routes to particular network destinations. None 29. Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment? A. efficient scalability B. virtualization C. storage capacity D. supported systems None 30. What is used to perform OoS packet classification? A. the Options field in the Layer 3 header B. the Type field in the Layer 2 frame C. the Flags field in the Layer 3 header D. the TOS field in the Layer 3 header None 31. What is one benefit of implementing a VSS architecture? A. It provides multiple points of management for redundancy and improved support. B. It uses GLBP to balance traffic between gateways. C. It provides a single point of management for improved efficiency. D. It uses a single database to manage configuration for multiple switches. None 32. A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements: 1. FHRP redundancy 2. multivendor router environment 3. IPv4 and IPv6 hosts Which protocol does the design include? A. GLBP B. VRRP version 2 C. VRRP version 3 D. HSRP version 2 None 33. Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial? A. under all network conditions B. under network convergence conditions C. under traffic classification and marking conditions D. under interface saturation conditions None 34. A network administrator has designed a network with two multilayer switches on the distribution layer, which act as default gateways for the end hosts. Which two technologies allow every end host in a VLAN to use both gateways? (Choose two) A. GLBP B. HSRP C. MHSRP D. VSS E. VRRP 35. How does an on-premises infrastructure compare to a cloud infrastructure? A. On-premises can increase compute power faster than cloud B. On-premises requires less power and cooling resources than cloud C. On-premises offers faster deployment than cloud D. On-premises offers lower latency for physically adjacent systems than cloud. None 36. Where is radio resource management performed in a Cisco SD-Access wireless solution? A. DNA Center B. control plane node C. wireless controller D. Cisco CMX None 37. In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine? A. It is leveraged for dynamic endpoint to group mapping and policy definition. B. It provides GUI management and abstraction via apps that share context. C. it is used to analyze endpoint to app flows and monitor fabric status. D. It manages the LISP EID database. None 38. Which devices does Cisco DNA Center configure when deploying an IP-based access control policy? A. All devices integrating with ISE B. selected individual devices C. all devices in selected sites D. all wired devices None 39. How is 802.11 traffic handled in a fabric-enabled SSID? A. centrally switched back to WLC where the user traffic is mapped to a VXLAN on the WLC B. converted by the AP into 802.3 and encapsulated into VXLAN C. centrally switched back to WLC where the user traffic is mapped to a VLAN on the WLC D. converted by the AP into 802.3 and encapsulated into a VLAN None 40. What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.) A. The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB B. The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the Information used to choose the egress interface for each packet. C. FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet. D. The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB. E. The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB. 41. Which two network problems indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two) A. port flapping B. excess jitter C. misrouted network packets D. duplicate IP addresses E. bandwidth-related packet loss 42. Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment? A. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric B. distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge routers C. manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric D. gather telemetry data from vEdge routers None 43. What is the centralized control policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment? A. list of ordered statements that define user access policies B. set of statements that defines how routing is performed C. set of rules that governs nodes authentication within the cloud D. list of enabled services for all nodes within the cloud None 44. Which congestion queuing method on Cisco IOS based routers uses four static queues? A. Priority B. custom C. weighted fair D. low latency None 45. After a redundant route processor failure occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables? A. RPVST+ B. NSF C. BFD D. RP failover None 46. What is a consideration when designing a Cisco SD-Access underlay network? A. End user subnets and endpoints are part of the underlay network. B. The underlay switches provide endpoint physical connectivity for users. C. Static routing is a requirement, D. It must support IPv4 and IPv6 underlay networks. None 47. In cisco SD_WAN, which protocol is used to measure link quality? A. OMP B. BFD C. RSVP D. IPsec None 48. What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric? A. 1500 B. 9100 C. 4464 D. 17914 None 49. Which two operational models enable an AP to scan one or more wireless channels for rouge access points and at the same time provide wireless services to clients? (Choose two.) A. Rouge detector B. Sniffer C. FlexConnect D. Local E. Monitor 50. What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment? A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks. B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks. C. To attach and register clients to the fabric. D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric. None 51. A customer has several small braches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement? A. Autonomous B. Mobility express C. SD-Access wireless D. Local mode None 52. Which technology is used as the basis for the cisco SD-Access data plane? A. IPsec B. LISP C. VXLAN D. 802.1Q None 53. How does CEF switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices? A. CEF switching saves memory by sorting adjacency tables in dedicate memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory. B. CEF switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table. C. CEF switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor. D. CEF switching uses proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses in MAC address table. None 54. What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC? A. It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller. B. It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs. C. It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails. D. It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between Itself and the primary controller. None 55. Which statement about a fabric access point is true? A. It is in local mode an must be connected directly to the fabric border node. B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. C. It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch. D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. None 56. Refer to the exhibit. Cisco DNA Center has obtained the username of the client and the multiple devices that the client is using on the network. How is Cisco DNA Center getting these context details? A. The administrator had to assign the username to the IP address manually in the user database tool on Cisco DNA Center. B. Those details are provided to Cisco DNA Center by the Identity Services Engine C. Cisco DNA Center pulled those details directly from the edge node where the user connected. D. User entered those details in the Assurance app available on iOS and Android devices None 57. Which two parameters are examples of a QoS traffic descriptor? (Choose two) A. MPLS EXP bits B. bandwidth C. DSCP D. ToS E. packet size 58. Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SDWAN endpoints? A. DTLS B. IPsec C. PGP D. HTTPS None 59. Which action is performed by Link Management Protocol In a Cisco StackWise Virtual domain? A. it determines if the hardware Is compatible to form the StackWise Virtual domain. B. It determines which switch becomes active or standby. C. It discovers the StackWise domain and brings up SVL interfaces. D. It rejects any unidirectional link traffic forwarding. None 60. What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution? A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD Access fabric. D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric None 61. In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored? A. with IP SLA B. ARP probing C. using BFD D. with OMP None 62. An engineer is implementing a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to improve the streaming experience for the clients of a video-on-demand server. Which action must the engineer perform to configure extended discovery to support the MPLS LDP session between the headend and tailend routers? A. Configure the interface bandwidth to handle TCP and UDP traffic between the LDP peers B. Configure a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel on both ends of the session C. Configure an access list on the interface to permit TCP and UDP traffic D. Configure a targeted neighbor session. None 63. What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB? A. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions. B. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored. C. The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB. D. The FIB is populated based on RIB content. None 64. In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, which two functions are performed by OMP? (Choose two.) A. advertisement of network prefixes and their attributes B. configuration of control and data policies C. gathering of underlay infrastructure data D. delivery of crypto keys E. segmentation and differentiation of traffic 65. What is a characteristic of Cisco StackWise technology? A. It uses proprietary cabling B. It supports devices that are geographically separated C. lt combines exactly two devices D. It is supported on the Cisco 4500 series. None 66. What is the function of cisco DNA center in a cisco SD-access deployment? A. It is responsible for routing decisions inside the fabric B. It is responsible for the design, management, deployment, provisioning, and assurance of the fabric network devices. C. It possesses information about all endpoints, nodes and external networks to the fabric D. IT provides integration and automation for all nonfabric nodes and their fabric counterparts. None 67. What are two benefits of implementing a Cisco SD-WAN architecture? (Choose two) A. It provides resilient and effective traffic flow using MPLS. B. It improves endpoint protection by integrating embedded and cloud security features. C. It allows configuration of application-aware policies with real time enforcement. D. It simplifies endpoint provisioning through standalone router management E. It enforces a single. scalable. hub-and-spoke topology. 68. In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer? A. provide QoS prioritization services such as marking, queueing, and classification for critical network traffic. B. provide redundant Layer 3 point-to-point links between the core devices for more predictable and faster convergence. C. provide advanced network security features such as 802. IX, DHCP snooping, VACLs, and port Security. D. provide redundant aggregation for access layer devices and first-hop redundancy protocols such as VRRP. None 69. What are two considerations when using SSO as a network redundancy feature? (Choose two) A. both supervisors must be configured separately B. the multicast state is preserved during switchover C. must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 2 operations D. must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 3 operations E. requires synchronization between supervisors in order to guarantee continuous connectivity 70. Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment? A. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks. B. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic. C. Provides reachability border nodes in the fabric underlay. D. Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP. None 71. How must network management traffic be treated when defining QoS policies? A. as delay-sensitive traffic in a low latency queue. B. using minimal bandwidth guarantee. C. using the same marking as IP routing. D. as best effort. None 72. In which two ways does TCAM differ from CAM? (Choose two.) A. CAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions, and TCAM is used for Layer 3 address lookups. B. The MAC address table is contained in CAM, and ACL and QoS Information Is stored in TCAM. C. CAM Is used by routers for IP address lookups, and TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions. D. CAM is used for software switching mechanisms, and TCAM Is used for hardware switching mechanisms. E. The MAC address table Is contained in TCAM, and ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM. 73. In a Cisco SD-Access solution, which protocol is used by an extended node to connect to a single edge node? A. VXLAN B. IS-IS C. 802 1Q D. CTS None 74. A customer transitions a wired environment to a Cisco SD-Access solution. The customer does not want to integrate the wireless network with the fabric. Which wireless deployment approach enables the two systems to coexist and meets the customer requirement? A. Deploy a separate network for the wireless environment. B. Implement a Cisco DNA Center to manage the two networks. C. Deploy the wireless network over the top of the fabric. D. Deploy the APs in autonomous mode. None 75. Which benefit is provided by the Cisco DNA Center telemetry feature? A. provides improved network security B. inventories network devices C. aids In the deployment network configurations D. improves the user experience None 76. Which function does a fabric AP perform in a Cisco SD-Access deployment? A. It updates wireless clients' locations in the fabric B. It connects wireless clients to the fabric. C. It manages wireless clients' membership information in the fabric D. It configures security policies down to wireless clients in the fabric None 77. Which benefit is realized by implementing SSO? A. IP first-hop redundancy B. communication between different nodes for cluster setup C. physical link redundancy D. minimal network downtime following an RP switchover None 78. What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM? A. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match B. The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM. C. Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM. D. TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables None 79. In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation? A. NSF/NSR B. SSO C. HSRP D. VRRP None 80. In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings? A. fabric control plane node B. fabric wireless controller C. fabric border node D. fabric edge node. None 81. Which feature Is used to propagate ARP broadcast, and link-local frames across a Cisco SDAccess fabric to address connectivity needs for silent hosts that require reception of traffic to start communicating? A. Native Fabric Multicast B. Layer 2 Flooding C. SOA Transit D. Multisite Fabric None 82. A company requires a wireless solution to support its mam office and multiple branch locations. All sites have local Internet connections and a link to the main office lor corporate connectivity. The branch offices are managed centrally. Which solution should the company choose? A. Cisco United Wireless Network B. Cisco DNA Spaces C. Cisco Catalyst switch with embedded controller D. Cisco Mobility Express None 83. Which two Cisco SD-WAN components exchange OMP information? A. vAnaiytlcs B. vSmart C. WAN Edge D. vBond E. vManage 84. Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes? A. IKE B. TLS C. IPsec D. ESP None 85. Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access deployment? A. VXLAN B. IS-IS C. OSPF D. LISP None 86. What happens when a FlexConnect AP changes to standalone mode? A. All controller-dependent activities stop working except the DFS. B. All client roaming continues to work C. Only clients on central switching WLANs stay connected. D. All clients on an WLANs are disconnected None 87. Which component transports data plane traffic across a Cisco SD-WAN network? A. vSmart B. vManage C. cEdge D. vBond None 88. What is a TLOC in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment? A. value that identifies a specific tunnel within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay B. identifier that represents a specific service offered by nodes within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay C. attribute that acts as a next hop for network prefixes D. component set by the administrator to differentiate similar nodes that offer a common service None 89. What is a characteristic of the overlay network in the Cisco SD-Access architecture? A. It uses a traditional routed access design to provide performance and high availability to the network. B. It consists of a group of physical routers and switches that are used to maintain the network. C. It provides isolation among the virtual networks and independence from the physical network. D. It provides multicast support to enable Layer 2 Hooding capability in the underlay network. None 90. Which function does a fabric wireless LAN controller perform In a Cisco SD-Access deployment? A. manages fabric-enabled APs and forwards client registration and roaming information to the Control Plane Node B. coordinates configuration of autonomous nonfabric access points within the fabric C. performs the assurance engine role for both wired and wireless clients D. is dedicated to onboard clients in fabric-enabled and nonfabric-enabled APs within the fabric None 91. What is one characteristic of the Cisco SD-Access control plane? A. It is based on VXLAN technology. B. Each router processes every possible destination and route C. It allows host mobility only in the wireless network. D. It stores remote routes in a centralized database server None 92. Which IPv4 packet field carries the QoS IP classification marking? A. ID B. TTL C. FCS D. ToS None 93. What is a characteristics of traffic policing? A. lacks support for marking or remarking B. must be applied only to outgoing traffic C. can be applied in both traffic directions D. queues out-of-profile packets until the buffer is full None 94. Which two features does the Cisco SD-Access architecture add to a traditional campus network? (Choose two.) A. software-defined segmentation B. private VLANs C. SD-WAN D. modular QoS E. identity services 95. What is a characteristics of a vSwitch? A. supports advanced Layer 3 routing protocols that are not offered by a hardware switch B. enables VMs to communicate with each other within a virtualized server C. has higher performance than a hardware switch D. operates as a hub and broadcasts the traffic toward all the vPorts None 96. Which two Cisco SD-Access components provide communication between traditional network elements and controller layer? (choose two) A. network data platform B. network underlay C. fabric overlay D. network control platform E. partner ecosystem 97. In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints? A. DHCP B. VXLAN C. SXP D. LISP None 98. An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.) A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic. B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible. C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate. D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible. 99. Why would a customer implement an on-premises solution instead of a cloud solution? A. On-premises Offers greater compliance for government regulations than cloud B. On-premises offers greater scalability than cloud. C. On-premises oilers shorter deployment time than cloud. D. On-premises is more secure man cloud None 100. When a wired client connects to an edge switch in an SDA fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network? A. control-plane node B. Identity Service Engine C. RADIUS server D. edge node None 101. In a campus network design, what are two benefits of using BFD for failure detection? (Choose two.) A. BFD speeds up routing convergence time. B. BFD is an efficient way to reduce memory and CPU usage. C. BFD provides fault tolerance by enabling multiple routers to appear as a single virtual router. D. BFD provides path failure detection in less than a second. E. BFD enables network peers to continue forwarding packets in the event of a restart. 102. In a Cisco SD-Access environment, which function is performed by the border node? A. Connect uteri and devices to the fabric domain. B. Group endpoints into IP pools. C. Provide reachability information to fabric endpoints. D. Provide connectivity to traditional layer 3 networks. None 103. What ate two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two ) A. The border node is required for communication between fabric and nonfabric devices. B. Fabric endpoints are connected directly to the border node C. Traffic within the fabric always goes through the control plane node D. The control plane node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database E. The border node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database 104. Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism allows the network administrator to control the maximum rate of traffic received or sent on a given interface? A. Policing B. Marking C. Queueing D. Classification None 105. How do cloud deployments compare to on-premises deployments? A. Cloud deployments provide a better user experience across world regions, whereas on- premises deployments depend upon region-specific conditions B. Cloud deployments are inherently unsecure. whereas a secure architecture is mandatory for onpremises deployments. C. Cloud deployments mandate a secure architecture, whereas on-premises deployments are inherently unsecure. D. Cloud deployments must include automation infrastructure, whereas on-premises deployments often lack the ability for automation. None 106. Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN? A. vBond B. vSmart C. vManage D. vEdge None 107. Which function is performed by vSmart in the Cisco SD-WAN architecture'? A. distribution of IPsec keys B. execution of localized policies C. redistribution between OMP and other routing protocols D. facilitation of NAT detection and traversal None 108. What is the result when an active route processor fails in a design that combines NSF with SSO? A. An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network B. The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete C. An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network. D. The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes. None 109. Which technology enables a redundant supervisor engine to take over when the primary supervisor engine fails? A. NSF B. graceful restart C. SSO D. FHRP None 110. Which QoS feature uses the IP Precedence bits in the ToS field of the IP packet header to partition traffic into different priority levels? A. marking B. shaping C. policing D. classification None 111. A customer has a pair of Cisco 5520 WLCs set up in an SSO cluster to manage all APs. Guest traffic is anchored to a Cisco 3504 WLC located in a DMZ. Which action is needed to ensure that the EoIP tunnel remains in an UP state in the event of failover on the SSO cluster? A. Use the mobility MAC when the mobility peer is configured B. Use the same mobility domain on all WLCs C. Enable default gateway reachability check D. Configure back-to-back connectivity on the RP ports None 112. In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain? A. EIRP B. dBi C. RSSI D. SNR None 113. Which two methods are used to interconnect two Cisco SD-Access Fabric sites? (Choose two.) A. SD-Access transit B. fabric interconnect C. wireless transit D. IP-based transit E. SAN transit 114. Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.) A. golden image selection B. automation backup C. proxy configuration D. application updates E. system update 115. Why does the vBond orchestrator have a public IP? A. to allow for global reachability from all WAN Edges in the Cisco SD-WAN and to facilitate NAT traversal B. to provide access to Cisco Smart Licensing servers for license enablement C. to enable vBond to learn the public IP of WAN Edge devices that are behind NAT gateways or in private address space D. to facilitate downloading and distribution of operational and security patches None 116. A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces. The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet. Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces? A. Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine B. Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller. C. Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center. D. Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM. None 117. What is a characteristics of Cisco SD-WAN? A. operates over DTLS/TLS authenticated and secured tunnels B. requires manual secure tunnel configuration C. uses unique per-device feature templates D. uses control connections between routers None 118. Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD-Access architecture? A. underlay network B. VPN routing/forwarding C. easy virtual network D. overlay network None 119. Which two functions is an edge node responsible for? (Choose two.) A. provides multiple entry and exit points for fabric traffic B. provides the default exit point for fabric traffic C. provides the default entry point for fabric traffic D. provides a host database that maps endpoint IDs to a current location E. authenticates endpoints 120. Which QoS queuing method transmits packets out of the interface in the order the packets arrive? A. custom B. weighted- fair C. FIFO D. priority None 121. What is difference between TCAM and the MAC address table? A. TCAM is used to make Lalyer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables. B. The MAC address table supports partial matches .TCAM requires an exact match. C. The MAC address table is contained in CAM.ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM. D. Router prefix lookups happens in CAM.MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM. None 122. Which function is performed by vSmart in the Cisco SD-WAN architecture? A. distribution of centralized policies B. execution of localized policies C. redistribution between OMP and other routing protocols D. facilitation of NAT detection and traversal None 123. What is a characteristic of traffic shaping? A. drops out-of-profile packets B. causes TCP retransmits when packets are dropped C. can be applied in both traffic directions D. queues out-of-profile packets until the buffer is full None 124. Why would a small or mid-size business choose a cloud solution over an on-premises solution? A. Cloud provides greater ability for customization than on-premises. B. Cloud provides more control over the implementation process than on-premises. C. Cloud provides lower upfront cost than on-premises. D. Cloud provides higher data security than on-premises. None 125. How do the RIB and the FIB differ? A. FIB contains routes learned through a dynamic routing protocol, and the RIB contains routes that are static or directly connected. B. RIB contains the interface for a destination, and the FIB contains the next hop information. C. FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the data plane. D. RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB. None 126. In a Cisco SD-Access wireless environment, which device is responsible for hosting the anycast gateway? A. fusion router B. control plane node C. fabric border node D. fabric edge node None 127. What is a characteristic of a traditional WAN? A. low complexity and high overall solution scale B. centralized reachability, security, and application policies C. operates over DTLS and TLS authenticated and secured tunnels D. united data plane and control plane None 128. Which collection contains the resources to obtain a list of fabric nodes through the vManage API? A. device management B. administration C. device inventory D. monitoring None 129. Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform? A. provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration B. performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks C. used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches D. in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node None 130. How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions? A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch. B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure. C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges. D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device. None 131. In a Cisco StackWise Virtual environment, which planes are virtually combined in the common logical switch? A. management and data B. control and management C. control, and forwarding D. control and data None 132. What is the role of the vsmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment? A. IT performs authentication and authorization B. It manages the control plane. C. It is the centralized network management system. D. It manages the data plane. None 133. What is the function of the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment? A. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric. B. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric. C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric. D. It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments. None 134. Which cisco DNA center application is responsible for group-based access control permissions? A. Design B. Provision C. Assurance D. Policy None 135. Which activity requires access to Cisco DNA Center CLI? A. provisioning a wireless LAN controller B. creating a configuration template C. upgrading the Cisco DNA Center software D. graceful shutdown of Cisco DNA Center None 136. What are two benefits of implementing a traditional WAN instead of an SD-WAN solution? (Choose two.) A. comprehensive configuration standardization B. lower control plane abstraction C. simplify troubleshooting D. faster fault detection E. lower data plane overhead 137. Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two ) A. All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center B. Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect C. User connectivity is unaffected. D. Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance. E. Users lose connectivity 138. How does Cisco Express Forwarding switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices? A. Cisco Express Forwarding switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table. B. Cisco Express Forwarding switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor. C. Cisco Express Forwarding swithing saves memory by storing adjacency tables in dedicated memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory. D. Cisco Express Forwarding switching uses a proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses the MAC address table. None 139. Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card? A. LC B. SC C. ST D. MPO None 140. What is stateful switchover? A. mechanism used to prevent routing protocol loops during an RP switchover B. mechanism to take control from a failed RP while maintaining connectivity C. First Hop Redundancy Protocol for host gateway connectivity D. cluster protocol used to facilitate switch faitover None 141. A network administrator is designing a new network for a company that has frequent power spikes. The company wants to ensure that employees can the best solution for the administrator to recommend? A. Generator B. Cold site C. Redundant power supplies D. Uninterruptible power supply None 142. Which solution should be used in a high-density wireless environment to increase bandwidth for each user? A. Increase antenna size B. Increase the mandatory minimum data rate. C. Increase the cell size of each AP. D. Increase TX power. None 143. A customer requires their wireless network to be fully functional, even if the wireless controller fails. Which wireless design supports these requirements? A. FlexConnect B. mesh C. centralized D. embedded None 144. A customer has 20 stores located throughout a city. Each store has a single Cisco access point managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analysis for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements? A. angle of arrival B. hyperlocation C. trilateration D. presence None 145. A network administrator wants to install new VoIP switches in a small network closet but is concerned about the current heat level of the room. Which of the following should the administrator take into consideration before installing the new equipment? A. The power load of the switches B. The humidity in the room C. The fire suppression system D. The direction of airflow within the switches None 146. In a Cisco SD-Access network architecture, which access layer cabling design is optimal for the underlay network? A. Switches are cross-linked at the same layer and have a single connection to each upstream distribution device. B. Switches are connected to each upstream distribution and core device. C. Switches are connected to each upstream distribution device. D. Switches are cross-linked to devices at the same layer and at the upstream and downstream devices. None 147. Which technology is the Cisco SD-Access control plane based on? A. LISP B. CTS C. SGT D. VRF None 148. How does the Cisco SD-Access control plane simplify traditional routing environments? A. Routing adjacencies are no longer required. B. Full routing tables are shared and ensure that all routers know all paths within the underlay fabric and overlay. C. Separation of EID and RLOC reduces the size of routing tables. D. Routers query all routes to the map server. None 149. What is the preferred QoS marking for delay-sensitive real-time protocols such as RTP? A. CS1 B. ATM-CLP C. EF D. AF None 150. Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.) A. APs that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs. B. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller. C. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other. D. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from managing data traffic between dents and infrastructure. E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments. 151. Which description of an SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true? A. The access point is part of the fabric underlay. B. The WLC is part of the fabric underaly. C. The access point is part the fabirc overlay. D. The wireless client is part of the fabirc overlay. None 152. On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric? A. LISP B. IS-IS C. Cisco TrustSec D. VXLAN None 153. Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true? A. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane. B. It maintains two tables in the data plane: the FIB and adjacency table. C. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler. D. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions. None 154. Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network? A. Marking B. Classification C. Shaping D. Policing None 155. What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment? A. faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased B. lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other C. less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises D. ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware None 156. What the role of a fusion in an SD-Access solution? A. provides connectivity to external networks B. acts as a DNS server C. performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services D. provides additional forwarding capacity to the fabric None 157. What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.) A. core switch B. vBond controller C. edge node D. access switch E. border node 158. How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion? A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate. B. It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate. C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery. D. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues. None 159. In an SD-WAN deployment, which action in the vSmart controller responsible for? A. handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric B. distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric C. gather telemetry data from vEdge routers D. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric None 160. What is the benefit of using TCAM for IP forwarding decisions versus using the CAM table? A. TCAM finds results based on binary, and CAM uses the longest match to find results B. TCAM processes lookups in a hardware CPU. and CAM relies on binary masks to find results. C. TCAM finds results based on masks, and CAM finds results basing on exact match. D. TCAM uses low cost hardware memory to store addresses, and CAM uses expensive hardware memory. None 161. How is CAPWAP data traffic encapsulated when running an Over the Top WLAN in a Cisco SD-Access wireless environment? A. LISP B. VXLAN C. GRE D. IPsec None 162. Which protocol does Cisco SD-WAN use to protect control plane communication? A. STUN B. OMP C. IPsec D. DTLS None 163. How do the MAC address table and TCAM differ? A. TCAM is populated from the ARP file, and the MAC address table is populated from the switch configuration file B. TCAM stores Layer 2 forwarding information, and the MAC address table stores QoS information C. TCAM lookups can match only 1s and 0s, and MAC address lookups can match 1s, 0s and a third "care/don't care" state D. TCAM is a type of memory and the MAC address table is a logical structure None 164. Which technology provides an overlay fabric to connect remote locations utilizing commodity data paths and improves network performance, boosts security, and reduces costs? A. InfiniBand B. VTEP C. SD-WAN D. VXLAN None 165. Which QoS mechanism will prevent a decrease in TCP performance? A. Shaper B. Rate-Limit C. Policer D. Fair-Queue E. WRED F. LLQ None 166. Which statement about the default QoS configuration on a Cisco switch is true? A. The Cos value of each tagged packet is modified B. Port trust is enabled C. The Port Cos value is 0 D. All traffic is sent through four egress queues None 167. How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other? A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct. B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table. C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices. D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor forprocessing before they are sent to the FIB. None 168. Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true? (Choose two) A. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB B. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination C. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations D. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination E. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table 169. Which deployment option of Cisco NQFW provides scalability? A. clustering B. Inline tap C. high availability D. tap None 170. Which control plane protocol is used between Cisco SD-WAN routers and vSmart controllers? A. TCP B. OMP C. UDP D. BGP None 171. Which tunneling technique is used when designing a Cisco SD-Access fabric data plane? A. LISP B. VRF Lite C. VRF D. VXLAN None 172. An engineer adds a new switch to a Cisco StackWise stack. The switch that was active before the switch was added is elected as the active switch again. Which action does the active switch take? A. It suspends traffic forwarding until the new switch is updated with the current running configuration of the stack. B. It checks the IOS and running configuration of the new switch and updates them if necessary to match the other switches in the stack. C. It removes any Layer 3 configuration on the new switch to maintain normal Layer 2 functionality on the stack. D. It clears the MAC table of the stack and relearns the attached devices. None 173. What is the architectural difference between the MAC address table and TCAM? A. TCAM entries are stored for 600 seconds, and MAC address table entries are kept for 200 seconds. B. TCAM entries are populated using the ARP table, and the MAC address table is populated dynamically from outgoing frames. C. TCAM entries consist of VLAN, port ID and source MAC Address, and MAC address table entries consist of source MAC address end port ID. D. TCAM entries are composed of value, mask, and result, and MAC address table entries are composed of value and results. None 174. When voice services are deployed over a wireless environment, which service must be disabled to ensure the quality of calls? A. Aggressive load balancing B. Dynamic transmit power control C. Priority queuing D. Fastlane None 175. In a fabric-enabled wireless network, which device is responsible for maintaining the endpoint ID database? A. fabric border node B. fabric edge node C. fabric wireless controller D. control plane node None 176. A network engineer is designing a Qos policy for voice and video applications. Which software queuing feature provides strict-priority servicing? A. Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing B. Link Fragmentation C. Low Larency Queuing D. Automatic Qos None 177. Which design principle should be followed in a Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployment? A. The WLC is connected outside of the fabric B. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay C. The access point is connected outside of the fabric. D. The WLC is part of the fabric overlay. None 178. What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose Two) A. In a cloud environment, the company controls technical issues. On-prem environments rely on the service provider to resolve technical issue. B. Cloud costs adjust up or down depending on the amount of resources consumed. On- Prem costs for hardware, power, and space are ongoing regardless of usage C. Cloud deployments require long implementation times due to capital expenditure processes. On-Prem deployments can be accomplished quickly using operational expenditure processes. D. Cloud resources scale automatically to an increase in demand. On-prem requires additional capital expenditure. E. In a cloud environment, the company is in full control of access to their data. On-prem risks access to data due to service provider outages 179. Where is radio resource management performed in a cisco SD-access wireless solution? A. DNA Center B. control plane node C. wireless controller D. Cisco CMX None 180. Which marking field is used only as an internal marking within a router? A. QoS Group B. Discard Eligibility C. IP Precedence D. MPLS Experimental None 181. An organization wants to use the cisco SD-WAN regionalized service-chaining feature to optimize cost and user experience with application in the network, which allows branch routers to analyze and steer traffic toward the required network function. Which feature meets this requirement? A. Cloud Services Platform B. VNF Service Chaning C. Cloud onRamp for Colocation D. Cloud onRamp for laaS None 182. Which CISCO SD-WAN component authenticates the routers and the vSmart controllers? A. vAnalytics B. vBond orchestrator C. vEdge D. vManage NMS None 183. What are two best practices when designing a campus Layer 3 infrastructure? (Choose two.) A. Configure passive-interface on nontransit links. B. Implement security features at the core. C. Summarize routes from the aggregation layer toward the core layer. D. Tune Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing hash for ECMP routing. E. Summarize from the access layer toward the aggregation layer. 184. Which characteristic applies to a traditional WAN solution but not to a Cisco SD-WAN solution? A. lengthy installation times B. centralized reachability, security, and application policies C. low complexity and increased overall solution scale D. operates over DTLS/TLS authenticated and secured tunnels None 185. What is the role of vSmart in a Cisco SD-WAN environment? A. to establish secure control plane connections B. to monitor, configure, and maintain SD-WAN devices C. to provide secure data plane connectivity over WAN links D. to perform initial authentication of devices None 186. Which statement about a fabric access point is true? A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. B. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. None 187. In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of a fabric edge node? A. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric B. to connect wired endpoints to the SD-Access fabric C. to advertise fabric IP address space to external networks D. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric None 188. What are two valid modes that Cisco Express Forwarding can operate in? (Choose two.) A. Central CEF mode B. Dense CEF mode C. Sparse CEF mode D. Distributed CEF mode E. Routed CEF mode 189. Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism is used to identify traffic flow and to use DSCP, IP Precedence values, and MPLS EXP bits to create different priority levels? A. Policing B. Marking C. Queueing D. Classification None 190. Select the devices from the below options that can be fart of Cisco SDWAN Solution. (Choose two.) A. ISR 2900 B. ASR 1000 C. IR8300 D. FTD 1120 E. ASR 9000 191. Two Cisco switches are logically configured as a single switch using Cisco Stackwise technology. This will result in virtually combining which two planes? (Choose two.) A. Data Plane B. Control Plane C. Forwarding Plane D. Management Plane E. Bearer Plane None 192. Which of the following statements regarding the use of Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) in a Cisco SD-WAN environment are true? A. BFD cannot be disabled on SD-WAN routers. B. OSPFv3 is not supported with BFD. C. In addition to link failure detection, it is also used to measure loss and latency used by application aware routing. D. Is not typically enabled for OMP. E. Does not support BGP. 193. Which Cisco SD-WAN component acts as a single pane of glass for management and offers centralized fault, performance, accounting, and configuration management? A. vBond B. vEdge C. vSmart D. vManage None 194. In a Cisco SD-WAN network, which VPN Identifier is reserved as the transport VPN, carrying control traffic? A. VPN 0 B. VPN 1 C. VPN 512 D. VPN 514 None 195. In a Cisco SD-WAN network, which VPN Identifier is reserved for carrying out-of-band network management traffic? A. VPN 0 B. VPN 1 C. VPN 512 D. VPN 514 None 196. Which of the following are the two components of the two-tier modern data center design? (Choose two.) A. Distribution B. Core C. Access D. Leaf E. Spine 197. Which of the following are the three components of the three-tier hierarchical networking model used in the classical Cisco networks design? (Choose three.) A. Distribution B. Core C. Access D. Leaf E. Spine 198. In a Cisco SD-Access wireless network, which device is used as an entry and exit point in and out of the fabric? A. fabric edge node B. control plane node C. fabric border node D. fabric access points None 199. Which of the following are valid statements when configuring Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) with Stateful Switchover (SSO) on a Cisco device? (Choose two.) A. supports multicast routing protocols B. Supports IPv4 and IPv6 C. Nonstop Forwarding requires SSO to also be configured D. HSRP is not supported with NSF/SSO E. Improper implementation of NSF/SSO can result in routing loops None 200. In a Cisco SD-Access fabric architecture, which of the following are valid device roles (Choose three.) A. Control Plane Node B. Access routing device C. Edge Node D. Border Node E. Distributed Node 201. Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism allows for the creation of multiple levels of QoS policy, providing a more granular degree of traffic management? A. Policing B. H-QoS C. Congestion avoidance D. Dual Policy None 202. You need to weigh the pros and cons of deploying a on-premise-based data center versus using a cloudbased data center deployment. What is an advantage of using a on-premise-based solution? (Choose two.) A. Lower application latency for end users B. Easily scalable C. Lower capital costs D. Reduced deployment times E. Increased control over the environment None 203. When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role? A. when a stack member fails B. when the stack primary is reset C. when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack D. when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value None 204. How does a fabric AP fit in the network? A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node D. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. None 205. What gives priority on an egress interface, for database traffic that connected on an ingress interface, without changing the CoS value? A. QoS group B. policy map C. CoS map D. class map None 206. What is a characteristic of vManage? A. It leverages the overlay management protocol to interface with WAN Edge devices. B. It supports protocols such as OSPF to integrate with legacy network devices. C. It requires a public IP address to allow WAN Edge devices to discover fabric components. D. It uses NETCONF to configure vSmart devices to build the overlay network data plane. None 207. Based on the images, which of the following are true? (Choose two.) Refer to the following two images regarding QoS Traffic Shaping and Traffic Policing:Image A: Imagem B: A. Image A depicts the result of Traffic Shaping B. Image A depicts the result of Traffic Policing C. Image B depicts the result of Traffic Shaping D. Image B depicts the result of Traffic Policing None 1 out of 207 Time's up
