CCNA – Network Fundamentals Welcome to your CCNA-Network Fundamentals 1. 1.How many broadcast domains are present in the network in the following exhibit? A. One broadcast domain B. Two broadcast domains C. Three broadcast domains D. Seven broadcast domains None 2. 2. How many potential collision domains are present in the network in the following exhibit? A. One collision domain B. Two collision domains C. Three collision domains D. Seven collision domains None 3. 3. Which statement is true about collision domains? A. All computers in the collision domain have the potential to have a frame collision. B. All computers in the collision domain have the potential to receive layer 2 broadcast messages. C. All computers in the collision domain have the potential to receive layer 3 broadcast messages. D. All computers in the collision domain are set to 10 Mb/s fullduplex. None 4. 4. In the following exhibit, which would be true if the hub was replaced with a switch? A. The number of collision domains would increase. B. The number of collision domains would decrease. C. The number of broadcast domains would increase. D. The number of broadcast domains would decrease. None 5. 5. Considering the following exhibit, which of the following is a correct statement? A. One collision domain exists with one broadcast domain. B. Two collision domains exist with one broadcast domain. C. Three collision domains exist with two broadcast domains. D. Seven collision domains exist with two broadcast domains. None 6. 6. Which component acts as a distribution switch for the physical data center? A. Top of Rack switch B. End of Row switch C. Core switch D. Virtual switch None 7. 7. Which advantage(s) are gained using switches? A. Low latency B. Software switching C. High cost D. All of the above None 8. 8. Which is a correct statement when hubs are replaced with switches? A. The replacement increases collision domains. B. The replacement decreases collision domains. C. The replacement increases broadcast domains. D. The replacement decreases broadcast domains. None 9. 9. Which is a function of a layer 2 switch? A. Forwarding the data based upon logical addressing. B. Repeating the electrical signal to all ports. C. Learning the MAC address by examining the destination MAC addresses. D. Determining the forwarding interfaces based upon the destination MAC address and tables. None 10. 10. What is a reason a network administrator would segment a network with a switch? A. Create more broadcast domains. B. Create isolation of ARP messages. C. Create fewer collision domains. C. Create fewer collision domains None 11. 11. What is the maximum wire speed of a single port on a 48-port Gigabit Ethernet switch? A. 1,000 Mb/s B. 2 Gb/s C. 48 Gb/s D. 96 Gb/s None 12. 12. Which statement describes the micro-segmentation that a switch provides? A. All of the ports on the switch create a single collision domain. B. Each port on the switch segments broadcasts. C. Each port on the switch creates its own collision domain. D. Each port on the switch creates an isolation for layer 2 broadcasts. None 13. 13. Given the information in the following exhibit, which statement is true when Computer A needs to communicate with Computer F? A. Switch A and Switch B will flood the frame across all ports. B. Only Switch A will flood the frame across all ports. C. Only Switch B will flood the frame across all ports. D. Switch A will flood the frame across all ports, Switch B will forward traffic only to Computer F’s port. None 14. 14. When firewalls are placed in a network, which zone contains Internetfacing services? A. Outside zone. B. Enterprise network zone. C. Demilitarized zone. D. Inside zone None 15. 15. According to best practices, what is the proper placement of a firewall? A. Only between the internal network and the Internet. B. At key security boundaries. C. In the DMZ. D. Only between the DMZ and the Internet. None 16. 16. Which is a false statement about firewalls? A. Firewalls can protect a network from external attacks. B. Firewalls are commonly deployed to protect a network from internal attacks. C. Firewalls can provide stateful packet inspection. D. Firewalls can control application traffic. None 17. 17. Which of the following statements does not represent the logical management of a firewall? A. All physical access to the firewall should be tightly controlled. B. All firewall policies should be documented. C. Firewall logs should be regularly monitored. D. Firewalls should allow traffic by default and deny traffic explicitly. None 18. 18. What is the reason firewalls are considered stateful? A. Firewalls keep track of the zone states. B. Firewalls keep accounting on the state of packets. C. Firewalls track the state of a TCP conversation. D. Firewalls transition between defense states. None 19. 19. You have an Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) and two separate Internet connections via different providers. How could you apply the same policies to both connections? A. Place both connections into the same zone. B. Place each connection into an ISP zone. C. Apply the same ACL to both of the interfaces. D. Each connection must be managed separately. None 20. 20. Why should servers be placed in the DMZ? A. To allow unrestricted access by Internet clients. B. To allow access to the Internet and the internal network. C. To allow the server to access the Internet. D. To restrict the server to the Internet None 21. 21. Which type of device will detect but not prevent unauthorized access? A. Firewall B. IPS C. IDS D. Honeypots None 22. 22. Which term describes what it is called when more than one wireless access point (WAP) covers the same SSID? A. Broadcast domain. B. Basic service set. C. Extended server set D. Wireless mesh None 23. 23. Which protocol allows a Lightweight AP (LWAP) to forward data to the wired LAN? A. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) B. Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) C. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) D. Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) None 24. 24. Which component allows wireless clients to roam between access points and maintain authentication? A. Basic service set. B. Extended service set. C. Wireless LAN controller. D. Service set ID. None 25. 25. Why would you use Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) as a connectivity option? A. You need support for multicast packets. B. You need support for both IPv4 and IPv6 packets. C. You need a high amount of bandwidth. D. You require encryption. None 26. 26. What is a service-level agreement (SLA) for network connectivity? A. It is an agreement of bandwidth between the ISP and the customer. B. It is a quality of service agreement between the ISP and the customer. C. It is an agreement of uptime between the ISP and the customer. D. All of the above. None 27. 27. Which is a valid reason to implement a wireless LAN controller? A. Centralized authentication B. The use of autonomous WAPs C. Multiple SSIDs D. Multiple VLANs None 28. 28. Which allows for seamless wireless roaming between access points? A. Single SSID. B. Single service set. C. 802.11ac. D. Wireless LAN controller. None 29. 29. Which is one of the critical functions that a wireless LAN controller performs? A. Allows autonomous WAPs. B. Synchronizes the WAPs with the same IOS. C. Triangulates users for location lookups. D. Allows for the use of all frequency channels. None 30. 30. Which should only be performed at the core layer? A. Routing. B. Supporting clients. C. Configuring ACLs. D. Switching None 31. 31. Which network topology design has a centralized switch connecting all of the devices? A. Star topology. B. Full mesh topology. C. Partial mesh topology. D. Hybrid topology. None 32. 32. Which is a direct benefit of a full mesh topology? A. Increased bandwidth. B. Increased redundancy. C. Decreased switch count. D. Increased complexity. None 33. 33. Where is the hybrid topology most commonly seen in the three-tier design model? A. Core layer. B. Distribution layer. C. Access layer. D. Routing layer. None 34. 34. Where is the full mesh topology commonly seen in the three-tier design model? A. Core layer. B. Distribution layer. C. Access layer. D. Routing layer. None 35. 35. Where is the star topology most commonly seen in the three-tier design model? A. Core layer. A. Core layer B. Distribution layer. C. Access layer. D. Routing layer. None 36. 36. Which topology does the collapsed core layer switch use in a two-tier design model? A. Star topology. B. Full mesh topology. C. Partial mesh topology. D. Hybrid topology. None 37. 37. The two-tier design model contains which layer switches? A. Core, distribution, and access B. Core and distribution C. Distribution and access D. Internet, core, distribution, and access None 38. 38. You have one campus, which contains 2,000 PCs, and each edge switch will contain 25 to 40 PCs. Based on this layout, which design model should be used? A. Collapsed core model. B. Three-tier model. C. DOD model. D. Access model. None 39. 39. Which is an accurate statement about the collapsed core design concept? A. It is best suited for large-scale networks. B. It allows for better bandwidth. C. It is best suited for small enterprises. D. It bottlenecks bandwidth. None 40. 40. Access layer switches in the three-tier design model perform which task? A. Connect to other switches for redundancy. B. Connect to users. C. Connect campuses. D. Connect to the Internet. None 41. 41. Distribution layer switches in the three-tier design model perform which task? A. Connect to other switches for redundancy B. Connect to users C. Connect campuses D. Connect to the Internet None 42. 42. Core layer switches in the three-tier design model perform which task? A. Connect to other switches for redundancy. B. Connect to users. C. Connect campuses. D. Connect to the Internet. None 43. 43. You have four campuses, each containing 500 PCs, and each edge switch will contain 20 to 30 PCs. Based on this layout, which design model should be used? A. Collapsed core model. B. Three-tier model. C. DoD model. D. Access model. None 44. 44. Which layer in the three-tier model is where redistribution of routing protocols should be performed? A. Core layer. B. Distribution layer. C. Access layer. D. Routing layer. None 45. 45. Which layer in the three-tier model is where collision domains should be created? A. Core layer. B. Distribution layer. C. Access layer. D. Routing layer. None 46. 46. In Cisco’s three-tier architecture, the links between the distribution layer switches indicate what kind of topology? A. Full mesh topology. B. Partial mesh topology. C. Star topology. D. Ring topology. None 47. 47. Which technology provides for a hub-and-spoke design? A. E-Tree services. B. Wireless WAN. C. E-Line services. D. E-LAN services. None 48. 48. Which is a typical use case for hub-and-spoke WAN design? A. Connections for an enterprise spread over a metropolitan area. B. Connections for an Internet service provider to its customers. C. Connections between two or more corporate locations. D. Connection internally inside of a service provider’s network. None 49. 49. Which WAN connectivity technology is always configured in a huband- spoke topology? A. IPsec. B. MPLS. C. DMVPN. D. Metro Ethernet. None 50. 50. Which sub-protocol inside of the PPP suite is responsible for authentication? A. MPLS. B. NCP. C. LCP. D. ACP None 51. 51. Which encapsulation protocol is used with PPP to transmit data over serial links? A. PPPoE. B. HDLC. C. MPLS. D. X.25 None 52. 52. Which authentication method used with PPP uses a nonce (random number) to hash the password and prevent replay attacks? A. PAP. B. PSAP. C. CHAP. D. LDAP None 53. 53. Which sub-protocol inside of the PPP suite facilitates multilink connections? A. MPLS. B. NCP. C. LCP. D. ACP None 54. 54. Which is a benefit of using MLPPP? A. Simplified layer 3 configuration B. Does not require routing protocols C. Does not require authentication protocols D. Provides end-to-end encryption None 55. 55. Which configuration will create the multilink interface for an MLPPP connection to an adjoining router? Answers: A. RouterA(config)#interface multilink 1RouterA(config-if)#encapsulation pppRouterA(config-if)#ppp multilinkRouterA(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0RouterA(config-if)#ppp multilink group 1B. RouterA(config)#interface multilink 1RouterA(config-if)#ppp multilinkRouterA(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0C. RouterA(config)#interface multilink 1RouterA(config-if)#encapsulation ppp multilinkD. RouterA(config)#interface multilink 1RouterA(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0RouterA(config-if)#ppp multilink group 1   A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D None 56. 56. You need to set up PPP authentication for RouterA. The adjoining router is named RouterB, and both routers will have a matching password of cisco. Which commands will achieve this? ANSWERS:A. RouterA(config)#username RouterA password ciscoRouterA(config)#interface serial 0/1/0RouterA(config-if)#ppp authentication chap papB. RouterA(config)#username RouterB password ciscoRouterA(config)#interface serial 0/1/0RouterA(config-if)#ppp authentication chap papC. RouterA(config)#username RouterA ciscoRouterA(config)#interface serial 0/1/0RouterA(config-if)#ppp authentication chap papD. RouterA(config)#username RouterA password ciscoRouterA(config)#interface serial 0/1/0RouterA(config-if)#authentication chap pap  A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D None 57. 57. In the following exhibit, what does the line LCP closed mean? A. The LCP process has completed. B. The router does not have an IP address configured. C. The serial line is disconnected. D. The LCP process has not completed. None 58. 58. You have obtained an ADSL circuit at a remote office for central office connectivity. What will you need to configure on the remote office router? A. Metro Ethernet. B. PPPoE. C. PPP. D. MPLS None 59. 59. Amazon Web Services (AWS) and Microsoft Azure are examples of what? A. Public cloud providers. B. Private cloud providers. C. Hybrid cloud providers. D. Dynamic cloud providers. None 60. 60. You are looking to create a fault tolerant colocation site for your servers at a cloud provider. Which type of cloud provider would you be searching for? A. PaaS. B. IaaS. C. SaaS. D. BaaS None 61. 61. Which is not a NIST criterion for cloud computing? A. Resource pooling. B. Rapid elasticity. C. Automated billing. D. Measured service. None 62. 62. Which term describes the type of cloud an internal IT department hosting virtualization for a company would host? A. Public cloud. B. Elastic cloud. C. Private cloud. D. Internal cloud. None 63. 63. What is the role of a cloud services catalog? A. It defines the capabilities for the cloud. B. It defines the available VMs for creation in the cloud. C. It defines the available VMs running in the cloud. D. It defines the drivers for VMs in the cloud. None 64. 64. A hosted medical records service is an example of which cloud model? A. PaaS. B. IaaS. C. SaaS. D. BaaS. None 65. 65. A hosted environment that allows you to write and run programs is an example of which cloud model? A. PaaS. B. IaaS. C. SaaS. D. BaaS. None 66. 66. Which cloud connectivity method allows for seamless transition between public clouds? A. MPLS VPN. B. Internet VPN. C. Intercloud exchange. D. Private WAN. None 67. 67. Which option is not a consideration when converting to an email SaaS application if the majority of users are internal? (Choose two.) A. Internal bandwidth usage. B. External bandwidth usage. C. Location of the users. D. Branch office connectivity to the Internet 68. 68. You purchase a VM on a public cloud and plan to create a VPN tunnel to the cloud provider. Your IP network is 172.16.0.0/12, and the provider has assigned an IP address in the 10.0.0.0/8 network. What virtual network function (VNF) will you need from the provider to communicate with the VM? A. Virtual switch. B. Virtual firewall. C. Virtual router. D. Another IP scheme at the provider. None 69. 69. Which protocol would you use to synchronize the VM in the public cloud with an internal time source at your premises? A. DNS. B. rsync. C. NTP. D. VPN. None 70. 70. Which cable type would you use to connect a switch to a switch? A. Straight-through cable. B. Crossover cable. C. Rolled cable. D. Shielded cable None 71. 71. Which fiber optic standard utilizes a 50 micron core? A. UTP B. Multi-mode C. Single-mode D. STP None 72. 72. Which type of cable would be used to connect a computer to a switch for management of the switch? A. Straight-through cable. B. Crossover cable. C. Rolled cable. D. Shielded cable None 73. 73. Which specification for connectivity is currently used in data centers for lower cost and simplicity? A. 10GBase-T. B. 40GBase-T. C. 10GBase-CX D. 100GBase-TX None 74. 74. If you had an existing installation of Cat5e on your campus, what is the highest speed you could run? A. 10 Mb/s B. 100 Mb/s. C. 1 Gb/s . D. 10 Gb/s. None 75. 75. Which statement is correct about straight-through cables and crossover cables? A. Crossover cables are wired with pins 1 through 8 on one side and 8 through 1 on the other side. B. Crossover cables are wired with the 568B specification on both sides. C. Straight-through cables are wired with the 568B specification on one side and the 568A specification on the other side. D. Crossover cables are wired with the 568B specification on one side and the 568A specification on the other side. None 76. 76. In the following exhibit, PPP is negotiating the username and password for the adjacent router. You are debugging PPP on the local router. What needs to be done to fix the problem? A. Configure PAP on this router. B. Configure PPP encapsulation on this router. C. Verify that the local username matches the adjacent router’s hostname and the passwords match. D. Verify that the remote username matches the adjacent router’s hostname and the passwords match. None 77. 77. Which device is responsible for adding the label to a MPLS packet? A. Customer edge (CE) router. B. Provider edge (PE) router. C. Customer premise switch. D. Label switch routers (LSR). None 78. 78. What is the term that defines the end of the provider’s responsibility and the beginning of the customer’s responsibility? A. CPE. B. CO. C. Local loop- D. Demarc. None 79. 79. What is the speed of a DS1 connection in North America? A. 2.048 Mb/s. B. 44.736 Mb/s. C. 1.544 Mb/s. D. 622.08 Mb/s. None 80. 80. Which command would you run to diagnose a possible line speed or duplex issue? A. Switch#show speed. B. Switch#show duplex C. Switch#show interface status. D. Switch#show diagnostics None 81. 81. In the following exhibit, what can you conclude about the interface or node? A. The interface is shut down. B. The interface is negotiated at half-duplex. C. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface. D. The cabling is shorted on the interface. None 82. 82. In the following exhibit, what can you conclude about the interface or node? A. The interface is shut down. B. The interface is negotiated at half-duplex. C. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface. D. The cabling is shorted on the interface. None 83. 83. You have just resolved a problem and now need to monitor the problem on the interface. How would you reset the error counts for a single interface? A. Switch#reset counters interface fast 0/1 B. Switch#clear interface fast 0/1 C. Switch#clear counters interface fast 0/1 D. Switch#clear statistics interface fast 0/1 None 84. 84. In the following exhibit, what can you conclude about the interface or node? A. The interface is shut down. B. The interface is negotiated at half-duplex. C. The interface is operating normally. D. The cable is disconnected for the node. None 85. 85. A router is connected to the switch via a Fast Ethernet interface. Intermittently you experience an outage. What should be done first to remedy the problem? Refer to the following exhibit. A. The speed and duplex should be set statically. B. Change the VLAN to a less crowded VLAN. C. Change the switchport mode to a trunk. D. Set the switchport to auto-negotiate. None 86. 86. In the following exhibit, what can you conclude about the interface or node? A. There are no problems with the interface. B. The interface is auto-negotiating speed and duplex. C. There are a large number of broadcasts. D. The node needs a faster network interface. None 87. 87. You have statically set an interface to 100 Mb/s full-duplex. However, the device you are plugging in will not work. Which command would you use to set speed and duplex back to auto-negotiate? ANSWERS(OPTION):A. Switch(config-if)#speed autoSwitch(config-if)#duplex autoB. Switch(config-if)#speed autonegotiateSwitch(config-if)#duplex autonegotiateC. Switch(config-if)#switchport autonegotiateD. Switch(config-if)#interface autonegotiate A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D None 88. 88. You have auto-negotiation turned off on the node, but it is turned on at the switch’s interface connecting the node. The interface is a 10/100/1000 Mb/s interface and the node is 100 Mb/s full-duplex. What will the outcome be when you plug in the node? A. The switch interface will be set to the 100 Mb/s full-duplex. B. The switch interface will be set to the 100 Mb/s half-duplex. C. The switch interface will be set to the 10 Mb/s full-duplex. D. The switch interface will be set to the 10 Mb/s half-duplex. None 89. 89. You plug a 100 Mb/s hub into a switch. What is the expected outcome? A. The switch interface will be set to the 100 Mb/s full-duplex. B. The switch interface will be set to the 100 Mb/s half-duplex. C. The switch interface will be set to the 10 Mb/s full-duplex. D. The switch interface will be set to the 10 Mb/s half-duplex. None 90. 90. You want to see the status of all speed and duplex negotiations for all interfaces. Which command would you use? A. Switch#show run B. Switch#show interfaces counters C. Switch#show interfaces status D. Switch#show counters interfaces None 91. 91. Flow control can be found at which layer of the OSI? A. Transport layer. B. Network layer. C. Data Link layer. D. Session layer. None 92. 92. Which protocol requires the programmer to deal with lost segments? A. SSL. B. TCP. C. UDP. D. NMS None 93. 93. Which is a correct statement about the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)? A. TCP is a connectionless protocol. B. TCP allows for error correction. C. TCP is faster than UDP. D. TCP allows for retransmission of lost segments. None 94. 94. Which statement correctly describes what happens when a web browser initiates a request to a web server? A. The sender allocates a port dynamically above 1024 and associates it with the request. B. The receiver allocates a port dynamically above 1024 and associates it with the request. C. The sender allocates a port dynamically below 1024 and associates it with the request. D. The receiver allocates a port dynamically below 1024 and associates it with the request. None 95. 95. Which protocol and port number is associated with SMTP? A. UDP/69. B. UDP/68. C. UDP/53. D. TCP/25. None 96. 96. How does TCP guarantee delivery of segments to the receiver? A. Via the destination port. B. TCP checksums. C. Window size. D. Sequence and acknowledgment numbers. None 97. 97. When a programmer decides to use UDP as a transport protocol, what is a decision factor? A. Redundancy of acknowledgment is not needed. B. Guaranteed delivery of segments is required. C. Windowing flow control is required. D. A virtual circuit is required. None 98. 98. Which mechanism allows for programs running on a server (daemons) to listen for requests through the process called binding? A. Headers. B. Port numbers. C. MAC address. D. Checksums. None 99. 99. Which is a correct statement about sliding windows used with TCP? A. The window size is established during the three-way handshake. B. Sliding windows allow for data of different lengths to be padded. C. It allows TCP to indicate which upper-layer protocol created the request. D. It allows the router to see the segment as urgent data. None 100. 100. Why does DNS use UDP for queries? A. DNS requires acknowledgment of the request for auditing. B. The requests require flow control of UDP. C. DNS requests are usually small and do not require connections setup. D. DNS requires a temporary virtual circuit. None 101. 101. What is required before TCP can begin sending segments? A. Three-way handshake B. Port agreement C. Sequencing of segments D. Acknowledgment of segments None 102. 102. Which class is the IP address 172.23.23.2? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D None 103. 103. Which is the default subnet mask for a Class A address? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255 None 104. 104. Which address is a multicast IP address? A. 221.22.20.2. B. 223.3.40.2. C. 238.20.80.4 D. 240.34.22.12 None 105. 105. Which is true of the IP address 135.20.255.255? A. It is a Class A address. B. It is a broadcast address. C. It is the default gateway address. D. It has a default mask of 255.0.0.0. None 106. 106. What is the CIDR notation for a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0? A. /19 B. /20 C. /22 D. /28 None 107. 107. You have been given an IP address network of 203.23.23.0. You are asked to subnet it for two hosts per network. What is the subnet mask you will need to use to maximize networks? A. 255.255.255.252 B. 255.255.255.248 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.224 None 108. 108. You have been given an IP address network of 213.43.53.0. You are asked to subnet it for 22 hosts per network. What is the subnet mask you will need to use to maximize networks? A. 255.255.255.252 B. 255.255.255.248 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.224 None 109. 109. Which valid IP is in the same network as 192.168.32.61/26? A. 192.168.32.59 B. 192.168.32.63 C. 192.168.32.64 D. 192.168.32.72 None 110. 110. You are setting up a network in which you need 15 subnetworks. You have been given a network address of 153.20.0.0, and you need to maximize the number of hosts in each network. Which subnet mask will you use? A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0 None 111. 111- An ISP gives you an IP address of 209.183.160.45/30 to configure your end of the serial connection. Which IP address will be on the side at the ISP? A. 209.183.160.43/30 B. 209.183.160.44/30 C. 209.183.160.46/30 D. 209.183.160.47/30 None 112. 112. In the following exhibit, what needs to be changed for Computer A to successfully communicate with Computer B (assume the least amount of effort to fix the problem)? A. Computer A needs to have its IP address changed. B. Computer B needs to have its IP address changed. C. The default gateway IP address for Computer A needs to be changed. D. The default gateway IP address for Computer B needs to be changed. None 113. 113. In the following exhibit, what needs to be changed for Computer A to successfully communicate with Computer B (assume the least amount of effort to fix the problem)? A. Computer A needs to have its IP address changed. B. Computer B needs to have its IP address changed. C. The default gateway IP address for Computer A needs to be changed. D. The default gateway IP address for Computer B needs to be changed. None 114. 114. Which subnet does host 131.50.39.23/21 belong to? A. 131.50.39.0/21 B. 131.50.32.0/21 C. 131.50.16.0/21 D. 131.50.8.0/21 None 115. 115. A computer has an IP address of 145.50.23.1/22. What is the broadcast address for that computer? A. 145.50.254.255 B. 145.50.255.255 C. 145.50.22.255 D. 145.50.23.255 None 116. 116. Which RFC defines private IP addresses? A. RFC 1819 B. RFC 1911 C. RFC 1918 D. RFC 3030 None 117. 117. What is a major reason to use private IP addressing? A. It allows for the conservation of public IP addresses. B. Since private IP addresses are non-routable on the Internet, they are secure. C. It keeps communications private. D. It allows easier setup than public IP addresses. None 118. 118. What is required when using private IP addresses to communicate with Internet hosts? A. Internet router B. IPv4 tunnel C. VPN tunnel D. Network Address Translation None 119. 119. Which is the Class A private IP address range? A. 10.0.0.0/8 B. 10.0.0.0/12 C. 172.16.0.0/12 D. 10.0.0.0/10 None 120. 120. Which is the Class B private IP address range? A. 10.0.0.0/8 B. 10.0.0.0/12 C. 172.16.0.0/12 D. 10.0.0.0/10 None 121. 121. Which is the Class C private IP address range? A. 192.168.1.0/24. B. 192.168.0.0/24. C. 192.168.0.0/16. D. 192.168.0.0/12. None 122. 122. You plug a laptop into a network jack. When you examine the IP address, you see 169.254.23.43. What can you conclude? A. The network jack is not working. B. Your laptop has a static IP address configured. C. The network is configured properly. D. The DHCP server is down. None 123. 123. You want to put a web server online for public use. Which IP address would you use? A. 192.168.34.34. B. 172.31.54.3. C. 10.55.33.32. D. 198.168.55.45 None 124. 124. Who is the governing body that distributes public IP addresses? A. IANA B. RFC C. IAB D. IETF None 125. 125. Which protocol allows multicast switches to join computers to the multicast group? A. ICMP B. IGMP C. IPMI D. IPGRP None 126. 126. Why is IPv6 needed in the world today? A. It does not require NAT to operate. B. The IPv4 address space is exhausted. C. IPv4 is considered legacy, and IPv6 is the replacement. D. IPv6 does not support subnetting. None 127. 127. How many bits is an IPv6 address? A. 32 bits B. 64 bits C. 128 bits D. 256 bits None 128. 128. You have two facilities and both use IPv6 addressing internally. However, both facilities are connected to the Internet via IPv4. What is one recommended method you can use to communicate between the facilities over the Internet? A. Dedicated leased line B. Frame Relay C. Dual stack D. 6to4 tunnel None 129. 129. Which command is required on a router to support IPv6 static addressing? A. Router(config)#ipv6 address B. Router(config)#ipv6 routing C. Router(config)#ipv6 enable D. Router(config)#ipv6 unicast-routing None 130. 130. Which command would you use on an interface to set the IPv6 address? A. Router(config-if)#ip address 2001:0db8:85aa:0000:0000:8a2e:1343:1337 B. Router(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:0db8:85aa:0000:0000:8a2e:1343:1337 C. Router(config-if)#ip address 2001:0db8:85aa:0000:0000:8a2e:1343:1337/64 D. Router(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:0db8:85aa:0000:0000:8a2e:1343:1337/64 None 131. 131. Which field of the IPv6 header allows for a dual stack host to decide which stack to process the packet in? A. Version field B. Flow label C. Source address D. Destination address None 132. 132. You want to see all of the interfaces on a router configured with IPv6. Which command would you use? A. Router#show ipv6 interfaces brief B. Router#show ip interfaces brief C. Router#show interfaces status D. Router#show ip addresses None 133. 133. Which is a valid shortened IPv6 address for 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:8a2e:0000:1337? A. 2001:db8:0000::8a2e::1337 B. 2001:db8:::8a2e:0000:1337 C. 2001:db8::8a2e::1337 D. 2001:db8::8a2e:0:1337 None 134. 134. Which is the correct expansion for the IPv6 address 2001::456:0:ada4? A. 2001:0000:0000:0456:0000:ada4 B. 2001:0000:0000:0000:456:0000:ada4 C. 2001:0000:0000:0000:0000:0456:0000:ada4 D. 2001:0000:0000:0000:0456:0000:0000:ada4 None 135. 135. In the IPv6 address 2001.0db8:1234:0016:0023:8080:2345:88ab/64, what is the subnet quartet? A. 1234 B. 0016 C. 0023 D. 8080 None 136. 136. What is the network prefix for the IPv6 address 2001.db8::8080:2345:88ab/64? A. 2001:db8::/64 B. 2001:0db8:8080:2345/64 C. 2001:0db8:0000:8080/64 D. 2001:0db8:0000:2345/64 None 137. 137. You need to verify connectivity to the IPv6 address fc00:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0004. Which command would you use? A. Router#ping fc00::4 B. Router#ping fc::4 C. Router#ping ipv6 fc00::4 D. Router#ping ipv6 fc::4 None 138. 138. Which method is used to direct communications to a single host? A. Unicast B. Broadcast C. Multicast D. Anycast None 139. 139. Which protocol uses broadcasting at layer 3? A. ARP B. DHCP C. IGMP D. SNMP None 140. 140. Which method is used to direct communications to all computers in a subnet? A. Unicast B. Broadcast C. Multicast D. Anycast None 141. 141. You work for an ISP. The American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN) has given you the 2001:0db8:8/34 IP address block. How many /48 blocks can you assign to your customers? A. 32,768 B. 16,384 C. 8,192 D. 4,096 None 142. 142. What protocol/process in IPv6 replaces the IPv4 ARP process? A. NDP (NS/NA) B. DAD (NS/NA) C. SLAAC (RS/RA) D. ARPv6 (NS/NA) None 143. 143. Which address is a global unicast address? A. fe80:db80:db01:ada0:1112::1 B. 2005:acd:234:1132::43 C. fd00:ac34:34b:8064:234a::7 D. ff00:101:4ab0:3b3e::10 None 144. 144. For global unicast addresses, which part of the address is allotted by the regional Internet registry (RIR) for the corresponding region? A. First 23 bits B. First 32 bits C. First 48 bits D. First 64 bits None 145. 145. Which address is a unique local address? A. fe80:db80:db01:ada0:1112::1 B. 2005:acd:234:1132::43 C. fd00:ac34:34b:8064:234a::7 D. ff00::10 None 146. 146. Which IPv6 address type is similar to IPv4 RFC 1918 addresses? A. Link-local addresses B. Global unicast addresses C. EUI-64 addresses D. Anycast addresses None 147. 147. Which address is a link-local address? A. fe80:db80:db01:ada0:1112::1 B. 2005:acd:234:1132::43 C. fd00:ac34:34b:8064:234a::7 D. ff00:101:4ab0:3b3e::10 None 148. 148. Which method is used to direct communications to the IP address that is closest to the source? A. Unicast B. Broadcast C. Multicast D. Anycast None 149. 149. Which command would configure a single anycast address on a router’s interface? A. Router(config-if)#ip address 2001:db8:1:1:1::12/64 B. Router(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1:1::12/64 anycast C. Router(config-if)#ipv6 anycast address 2001:db8:1:1:1::12/128 D. Router(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1:1::12/128 anycast None 150. 150. Which method is used to direct communications to a group of computers that subscribe to the transmission? A. Unicast B. Broadcast C. Multicast D. Anycast None 151. 151. Which address is a multicast address? A. fe80:db80:db01:ada0:1112::1 B. 2005:acd:234:1132::43 C. fd00:ac34:34b:8064:234a::7 D. ff00::10 None 152. 152. You are using the EUI-64 method of allocating the host portion of the IPv6 addresses. The MAC address of the host is f423:5634:5623. Which is the correct IP address that will be calculated for a network ID of fd00:1:1::? A. fd00:0001:0001:0000:f623:56ff:fe34:5623/64 B. fd00:0001:0001:0000:f423:56ff:fe34:5623/64 C. fd00:0001:0001:0000:fffe:f623:5634:5623/64 D. fd00:0001:0001:0000:f623:56ff:ff34:5623/64 None 153. 153. Which address is a EUI-64 generated address? A. 2001:db8:33::f629:58fe:ff35:5893/64 B. fd00:4:33::f680:45ca:ac3b:5a73/64 C. 2001:db8:aa::f654:56ff:fe34:a633/64 D. 2001:db8:17:fffe:f623::ff34:5623/64 None 154. 154. Which command would use the MAC address for the host portion of the IPv6 address on a router interface? A. Router(config-if)#ip address eui-64 2001:db8:1234::/64 B. Router(config-if)#ip address 2001:db8:1234::/64 macaddress C. Router(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8:1234::/64 eui- 64 D. Router(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8:1234::/64 mac None 155. 155. Which command on Windows will allow you to verify your IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and MAC address? A. C:\>ipconfig B. C:\>ipstatus C. C:\>ipconfig /all D. C:\>hostname None 156. 156. Which command on Windows will allow you to verify the path a packet gets routed through on the network? A. C:\>tracert 198.78.34.2 B. C:\>ping 198.78.34.2 C. C:\>traceroute 198.78.34.2 D. C:\>route print None 157. 157. Your DNS administrator has changed the DNS entry for RouterB. You clear the DNS cache on RouterA and ping routerb.sybex.com from RouterA, but you still ping the original address prior to the change. All other DNS addresses work fine and the entry resolves correctly on your laptop. What is the problem? A. The router is configured to the wrong DNS server. B. RouterA has a host entry configured. C. The DNS administrator made an error. D. The domain name of the router is incorrect. None 158. 158. You have configured a router to point to the DNS server with the IP address 10.2.2.2 and configured the domain name of sybex.com. However, you cannot resolve the host routerb.sybex.com. Which Windows command will help you verify DNS name resolution? A. C:\>ping routerb.sybex.com B. C:\>tracert routerb.sybex.com C. C:\>nslookup routerb.sybex.com D. C:\>dig routerb.sybex.com None 159. 159. Which Windows command will allow you to see the DHCP server that has configured the client computer with an IP address? A. C:\>ipconfig B. C:\>ipconfig /all C. C:\>ipconfig /showclassid D. C:\>ipstatus None 160. 160. You have configured a DHCP server on a router interface. You test a Windows client and receive the address 169.254.24.56. What can you conclude? A. You have successfully configured the scope of 169.254.24.0/24. B. The client had a static IP address of 169.254.24.0/24 configured. C. The DHCP server is not configured properly and the client has configured itself with a link-local address. D. The DHCP server is configured for APIPA. None 161. 161. Which is the contention method 802.11 wireless uses? A. CSMA/CA B. CSMA/CD C. DSSS D. OFDM None 162. 162. In the 2.4 GHz spectrum for 802.11, which channels are non-overlapping? A. Channels 1, 3, and 11 B. Channels 1, 3, and 6 C. Channels 1, 6, and 11 D. Channels 1 through 6 None 163. 163. You are designing a wireless network for an office building. The building has a large number of tenants that utilize wireless already. Which protocol will least likely overlap with wireless channels the tenants are currently using? A. 802.11b B. 802.11g C. 802.11n D. 802.11ac None 164. 164. Which wireless encryption protocol uses a 24-bit initialization vector? A. WPA B. WEP C. WPA2 D. WPA3 None 165. 165. Which wireless standard does not use a pre-shared key for authentication? A. WPA B. WPA2 C. WEP D. WPA2 Enterprise None 166. 166. When designing a wireless network, which would be a compelling reason to use 5 GHz? A. 5 GHz can go further. B. 5 GHz allows for more clients. C. There are 24 non-overlapping channels. D. There is less interference on 5 GHz. None 167. 167. Which wireless frequency spectrum is shared with Bluetooth? A. 900 MHz B. 2.4 GHz C. 5 GHz D. All of the above None 168. 168. Which 802.11 standard functions strictly on 2.4 GHz? A. 802.11g B. 802.11n C. 802.11a D. 802.11ac None 169. 169. Which allows for the distribution of compute resources such as CPU and RAM to be distributed over several operating systems? A. Physical server B. Hypervisor C. Virtual machine D. Virtual network None 170. 170. Which option describes a VM best? A. An operating system that is running directly on hardware B. An operating system that is running with dedicated hardware C. An operating system that is running on reduced hardware features D. An operating system that is decoupled from the hardware None 171. 171. What is the physical hardware used in virtualization called? A. Host B. VM C. Hypervisor D. Guest None 172. 172. Which component connects the VM NIC to the physical network? A. vNIC B. Trunk C. Virtual switch D. NX-OS None 173. 173. Which of the following is a virtual network function (VNF) device? A. Virtual switch B. Virtual firewall C. Database server D. File server None 174. 174. You need to scale out some web servers to accommodate load. Which method would you use? A. Add vCPUs. B. Add vRAM. C. Add DNS. D. Add SLBaaS. None 175. 175. Which is a correct statement about MAC addresses? A. Organizationally unique identifiers (OUIs) create a unique MAC address. B. The first 24 bits of a MAC address are specified by the vendor. C. The IEEE is responsible for MAC address uniqueness. D. If the I/G bit is set to 1, then the frame identifies a broadcast or multicast. None 176. 176. Which command would you use to diagnose a problem with frames that are not getting forwarded to the destination node on a switch? A. Switch#show route B. Switch#show mac address-table C. Switch#show mac table D. Switch#show interface None 177. 177. Which mechanism does a switch employ to stop switching loops? A. Port channels B. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) C. Ether channels D. Trunks None 178. 178. Which is a consequence of not using loop avoidance with layer 2 switching? A. Duplicate unicast frames B. Broadcast storms C. MAC address thrashing D. All of the above None 179. 179. Which switching method checks the CRC as the frame is received by the switch? A. Cut-through mode B. Frag-free mode C. Store-and-forward mode D. Fast switching None 180. 180. Which switch mode operation reads only the first 64 bytes before making a switching decision? A. Cut-through mode B. Fragment-free mode C. Store-and-forward mode D. Fast switching None 181. 181. A user is complaining of extremely long logon times. Using the following exhibit, what can you conclude? A. The connection to the computer needs to be upgraded to 100 Mb/s. B. The connection to the computer has wiring issues. C. The NIC in the attached computer is going bad and needs replacement. D. The interface or computer is running at half-duplex. None 182. 182. How are MAC addresses learned and associated with the port? A. Destination MAC address learning B. Source MAC address learning C. Port listen/learning D. Frame type learning None 183. 183. In the following exhibit, what will happen if the computers on ports Fa0/1 (Computer A) and Fa0/4 (Computer B) are swapped? A. Computer A’s frames will only be forwarded to port Fa0/1. B. Computer A’s frames will be forwarded to ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/4. C. Computer A’s frames will only be forwarded to port Fa0/4. D. Computer B’s frames will be forwarded to all ports. None 184. 184. In the following exhibit, what will happen if the computers on ports Fa0/2 (Computer A) and Fa0/3 (Computer B) are swapped? A. Computer A’s frames will only be forwarded to port Fa0/2. B. Computer A’s frames will be forwarded to port Fa0/2 and Fa0/3. C. Computer A’s frames will only be forwarded to port Fa0/3. D. Computer B’s frames will be forwarded to all ports. None 185. 185. What is the default MAC address aging time for dynamic entries on most switches? A. 30 seconds B. 60 seconds C. 300 seconds D. 500 seconds None 186. 186. Refer to the following exhibit. Which statement is true about the computer with a MAC address of 0001.6c58.24ae? A. The computer is directly connected to Gi0/1. B. The computer is directly connected to Fa0/1. C. The computer is connected to another switch on Gi0/1. D. The MAC address table is thrashed due to a loop. None 187. 187. What information is added to the MAC address table when a frame is received on an interface? A. Destination MAC address of the frame and incoming port number B. Source MAC address of the frame and incoming port number C. Destination MAC address of the frame and outgoing port number D. Source MAC address of the frame and outgoing port number None 188. 188. You need to change the default MAC address aging time on a switch to 400 seconds. Which command would you use? A. Switch#set mac aging 400 B. Switch#mac aging-time 400 seconds C. Switch#mac-address-table aging-time 400 D. Switch#mac address-aging 400 None 189. 189. How do switches forward frames only to the destination computer? A. Forward/filter decisions based on the MAC address table B. Forward/filter decisions based on the routing table C. Flooding ports for the destination MAC address D. Broadcasting for the MAC address None 190. 190. Referring to the following exhibit, what will happen when a frame destined for 0001.6c58.486f enters the switch? A. The frame will be forwarded to the uplink port. B. The frame will be forwarded to all active ports. C. The frame will be dropped. D. The frame will be forwarded to a MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff. None 191. 191. Given the information in the following exhibit, which statement is true when Computer A needs to communicate with Computer C? A. Switch A and Switch B will flood the frame across all ports. B. Only Switch A will flood the frame across all ports. C. Only Switch B will flood the frame across all ports. D. Switch A will forward traffic only to Computer C’s port. None 192. 192. Given the information in the following exhibit, which statement is true when Computer A needs to communicate with Computer F? A. Switch A and Switch B will flood the frame across all ports. B. Only Switch A will flood the frame across all ports. C. Only Switch B will flood the frame across all ports. D. Switch A will flood the frame across all ports. Switch B will forward traffic only to Computer F’s port. None 193. 193. Under which circumstance will a switch drop a frame? A. If the destination MAC address of the frame is unknown in the MAC address table B. If the source MAC address of the frame is unknown in the MAC address table C. If the frame is deemed to be corrupt via the CRC D. If the destination MAC address exists in another switch’s MAC address table None 194. 194. Which switch function reads the frame and uses the MAC address table to decide the egress interface for the frame? A. Forward/filter B. Address learning C. Loop avoidance D. Frame flooding None 195. 195. In the following exhibit, what will happen first at the switch when Computer A wants to sends Computer B a message? A. The switch will forward the frame to all ports on the switch. B. The switch will direct communication to port Fa0/1. C. The switch will record Computer A’s MAC address on port Fa0/0. D. The switch will record Computer B’s MAC address on port Fa0/1. None 196. 196. In the following exhibit, what will happen first when Computer A wants to send Computer B a message? A. The switch will forward the frame to all ports on the switch. B. The switch will direct communication to port Fa0/1. C. The switch will record computer A’s MAC address on port Fa0/0. D. The switch will record computer B’s MAC address on port Fa0/1. None 197. 197. Which statement is true of an ARP request entering into a switch? A. The source MAC address of the frame will be all fs. B. The destination MAC address of the frame will be all fs. C. The switch will only forward the ARP request to the port for the destination computer. D. The switch will respond directly back with an ARP reply. None 198. 198. Under what circumstance will a switch flood a frame to all ports on the switch? A. When the source MAC address is unknown by the switch B. When the destination MAC address is a multicast address C. When the destination MAC address is unknown by the switch D. When the destination MAC address is 0000.0000.0000 None 199. 199. Where are MAC address tables stored? A. Flash B. CPU registers C. RAM D. NVRAM None 200. 200. Which command will allow you to see the MAC address table? A. Switch#show mac B. Switch#show mac address-table C. Switch#show cam table D. Switch#show mac table None 201. 201. Which command will display all connected ports on a switch and include descriptions? A. Switch#show ports B. Switch#show counters interfaces C. Switch#show interfaces counters D. Switch#show interfaces status None 1 out of 201 Time's up
