CCNA – IP Connectivity

Welcome to your CCNA-IP Connectivity

1. Which is a reason for using a dynamic routing protocol?

A. You have a network with only a few routers and subnets per branch.

B. You have a network with only a few VLANs and one router.

C. You have a network with a large number of VLANs and only one router.

D. You have a network with a few subnets and many routers.

None

2. How are routers managed with interior gateway protocols?

A. Routers are grouped into autonomous systems.

B. Routing protocols are redistributed between ASs.

C. All routers use the same interior routing protocol.

D. All network IDs are advertised with the same autonomous system number.

None

3. What is the maximum hop count for RIP?

A. 15 hops

B. 100 hops

C. 255 hops

D. 16 hops

None

4. Which statement is true about RIPv2 advertisements?

A. RIPv2 allows for neighborship through hello packets.

B. RIPv2 broadcasts only updates on all active interfaces.

C. RIPv2 multicasts the full routing table every 30 seconds.

D. RIPv2 multicasts the full routing table every 60 seconds.

None

5. Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for advertising routes?

A. 224.0.0.5

B. 224.0.0.9

C. 224.0.0.6

D. 224.0.0.2

None

6. In the following exhibit, a packet from network 192.168.1.0/24 is destined for 192.168.4.0/24. The route the packet will take will be Router A to Router B, determined by RIPv2. However, the bandwidth is only 64 Kb/s. How can you force packets to travel over the 1.544 Mb/s links? A. RouterA(config-router)#passive interface serial 0/3/0 RouterB(config-router)#passive interface serial 0/3/0 B. RouterA(config)#ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/3/1 RouterB(config)#ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/3/1 C. RouterA(config-router)#cost 2 serial 0/3/0 RouterB(config-router)#cost 2 serial 0/3/0 D. RouterA(config-if)#metric 2 serial 0/3/0 RouterB(config-if)#metric 2 serial 0/3/0

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

None

7. Which routing protocol will not contain a topology of the network?

A. EIGRP

B. RIP

C. OSPF

D. BGP

None

8. Which routing loop avoidance method is used by routers to prevent routing updates from exiting an interface in which they have been learned?

A. Routing to infinity

B. Route poisoning

C. Holddowns

D. Split horizon

None

9. You are examining a routing table and see a route marked with S*. Which type of route is this?

A. Static route

B. Default route

C. Dynamic route

D. OSPF route

None

10.

10. You are examining a routing table and see the entry in the following exhibit. What does the 4 in the underlined number represent?

A. The 4 represents the administrative distance.

B. The 4 represents the protocol.

C. The 4 represents the metric.

D. The 4 represents the position in the routing table.

None

11.

11. Which command will allow you to verify routes line by line in a subset of the general route statement?

A. Router#show ip route 160.45.23.0 255.255.255.0 longerprefixes

B. Router#show ip route 160.45.23.0 255.255.255.0

C. Router#show ip route bgp

D. Router#show ip route

None

12.

12. Examining the show ip route statement in the exhibit, which will be the next hop for a destination address of 192.168.1.5?

A. The gateway 172.16.1.200

B. The exit interface Serial 0/0

C. The gateway 172.16.1.100

D. The exit interface Ethernet0

None

13.

13. Which route statement is configured when an IP address of 203.80.53.22/19 is configured on an interface?

A. S 203.80.16.0/19 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

B. S 203.80.32.0/19 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

C. S 203.80.48.0/19 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

D. S 203.80.53.22/19 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

None

14.

14. In the following exhibit, what does the top line of the output represent?

A. The 10.0.0.0/8 is a route in the routing table.

B. The 10.0.0.0/8 is a summarization of the routes in the table.

C. The 10.0.0.0/8 is the router’s network address.

D. The 10.0.0.0/8 has been populated from another router.

None

15.

15. You are examining a routing table and see the entry in the following exhibit. What does the underlined number represent?

A. The number represents the current time.

B. The number represents the delay in microseconds of the connection.

C. The number represents the time the route has been in the routing table.

D. The number represents the time the interface has been up.

None

16.

16. In the following exhibit is a copy of the running-config. What is the next hop for a destination address of 192.168.4.85?

A. Interface Serial 0/2/0

B. IP address 192.168.4.2

C. Interface Serial 0/0/1

D. IP address 198.22.34.3

None

17.

17. Using the following exhibit, if traffic enters Router A for a destination address of 198.44.4.7, what must be configured to allow routing to the host?

A. RouterA(config)#ip route 198.44.4.0 255.255.255.0 198.44.4.5

B. RouterA(config)#ip route 198.44.4.0 255.255.255.0 fast 0/1

C. RouterA(config)#ip route 198.44.4.0/24 fast 0/1

D. Nothing needs to be done.

None

18.

18. You need to create a route for 205.34.54.85/29 with the next hop being 205.34.55.2. Which command would create this route?

A. Router(config)#ip route 205.34.54.85/24 205.34.55.2

B. Router(config)#ip route 205.34.54.85 255.255.255.248 205.34.55.2

C. Router(config)#ip route 205.34.54.85 255.255.255.240 205.34.55.2

D. Router(config)#ip route 205.34.55.2 255.255.255.248 205.34.54.85

None

19.

19. When a static route is made, what is the default AD?

A. AD of 1

B. AD of 0

C. AD of 2

D. AD of 255

None

20.

20. What is the AD of RIP?

A. AD of 90

B. AD of 100

C. AD of 110

D. AD of 120

None

21.

21. Why are ADs used with routing tables?

A. ADs define protocol standards.

B. ADs define reliability of routing protocols.

C. ADs allow for the shortest distance between routes.

D. ADs are programmed by the administrator for path selection.

None

22.

22. What is the AD of a directly connected network?

A. The AD is 0.

B. The AD is 1.

C. The AD is 5.

D. Directly connected networks do not have an AD.

None

23.

23. What is the AD of internal EIGRP?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 120

None

24.

24. What is the definition of route statement AD?

A. The AD is a metric that routing protocols use to select the best route.

B. The AD is a value assigned by network administrators for route selection.

C. The AD is a rating of trust when multiple routes exist to the same destination.

D. The AD is a value associated with the cost to the destination.

None

25.

25. Which must be configured so that EIGRP can calculate the best route?

A. Bandwidth

B. Delay

C. Reliability

D. Load

None

26.

26. You perform a show ip route on the router and see several routes with an AD of 90. Which routing protocol has generated these route statements?

A. IGRP

B. OSPF

C. EIGRP

D. RIP

None

27.

27. Which statement is true when there are multiple route statements from different routing protocols for the same destination network?

A. The route is chosen with the highest AD.

B. The route chosen has the lowest metric.

C. The route is chosen with the lowest AD.

D. The route chosen has the highest metric.

None

28.

28. You have a network with varied bandwidths and need to choose a dynamic routing protocol. Which would you choose for optimal performance?

A. RIPv1

B. RIPv2

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

None

29.

29. What is the Cisco metric for OSPF?

A. 10^8/bandwidth

B. Delay, bandwidth, reliability, load

C. K metrics

D. Bandwidth

None

30.

30. You enter a show ip route command and see the following line. What does the [110/1] identify? O 192.168.3.0/24 [110/1] via 192.168.10.6, 00:58:55, Serial0/3/1

A. AD of 110 and a 100 Mb/s link

B. AD of 110 and a 10 Mb/s link

C. AD of 1 and a 110 Mb/s link

D. AD of 110 and a 1 Gb/s link

None

31.

31. What type of route is the destination of 0.0.0.0/0?

A. Local route

B. Dynamic route

C. Default route

D. Loopback route

None

32.

32. What role does ICMP take in the routing of a packet?

A. ICMP populates the routing table.

B. ICMP is used when routes are not reachable.

C. ICMP maintains the routing table.

D. ICMP performs continuous diagnosis of the network paths.

None

33.

33. How is a route selected when the route table contains overlapping destination prefixes?

A. The route with the lowest cost is selected.

B. The route with the longest matching prefix is selected.

C. The route with the highest AD is selected.

D. The route with the lowest AD is selected.

None

34.

34. You are examining a router and discover that there is a static default route configured for a next hop of 192.168.1.2. You also notice that there is a default route being populated from RIP for a next hop of 192.168.2.2. Which default route will be selected?

A. The route with the lowest AD

B. The route with the highest AD

C. The route with the lowest metric

D. The route being populated from RIP

None

35.

35. Which is true of a host route in the routing table?

A. The host route is the route a packet will take if no other route matches in the routing table.

B. The routing table creates host routers for the destination hosts it discovers.

C. A host route is a specific route with a netmask of /32 for a specific host.

D. The host route is populated from HSRP.

None

36.

36. Which element of a routing table will identify where the route was learned from?

A. Prefix and network mask

B. Routing protocol code

C. Metric

D. Next hop

None

37.

37. Which criteria are routing decisions based upon?

A. Source IP

B. Destination IP address

C. TTL

D. Destination MAC address

None

38.

38. Which type of routing requires network administrator intervention?

A. Link-state routing

B. Distance-vector routing

C. Static routing

D. Dynamic routing

None

39.

39. Which is a correct statement about the subnet mask?

A. The subnet mask is used by the host to determine the destination network.

B. The subnet mask is used in routing to determine the destination network.

C. The router uses its subnet mask when routing a packet.

D. The destination computer checks the subnet mask on the packet to verify that it’s intended for that computer.

None

40.

40. What protocol does the router or host use to find a MAC address for the frame when it determines that the packet is on the local network?

A. IGMP

B. RARP

C. ARP

None

41.

41. When a packet is determined to be remote from the network of the sending host, what happens?

A. The destination IP address is changed to the router’s IP address.

B. The destination MAC address is changed to the destination host’s MAC address.

C. The destination MAC address is changed to the router’s MAC address.

D. The source IP address is changed to the router’s IP address.

None

42.

42. Which statement describes correctly what happens when a packet moves through a router?

A. The destination IP address is changed to the original destination.

B. The packet’s TTL is decremented.

C. The source MAC address is changed to the original source MAC address.

D. All of the above.

None

43.

43. When a packet is determined to be on the local network, what happens?

A. The destination IP address is changed to the router IP address.

B. The destination MAC address is changed to the destination host’s MAC address.

C. The destination MAC address is changed to the router’s MAC address.

D. The source IP address is changed to the router’s IP address.

None

44.

44. How does the sending host know if the destination is local or remote with respect to its immediate network?

A. The host compares the IP address to its internal routing table.

B. The host performs ANDing on its subnet mask and the destination IP address, comparing the result to its own network address.

C. The host performs ANDing on the destination subnet mask and the destination IP address, comparing the result to its own network address.

D. The IP address is verified to be local to its network via ICMP.

None

45.

45. What is the current method Cisco routers use for packet forwarding?

A. Process switching

B. Fast switching

C. Intelligent packet forwarding

D. Cisco Express Forwarding

None

46.

46. What is the process called at layer 2 when a packet hops from router to router and eventually to the host?

A. IP routing

B. Frame rewrite

C. Packet hopping

D. Packet switching

None

47.

47. When a host sends an ARP request packet out, what is the destination address of the frame?

A. The router’s MAC address

B. The host’s MAC address

C. The MAC address, in the form of a broadcast

D. The MAC address, in the form of a multicast

None

48.

48. What does every network device use to limit the number of ARP packets?

A. ARP cache

B. IP multicasting

C. Frame casting

D. IP cache

None

49.

49. Which statement describes what happens when a packet enters a router?

A. The router accepts all incoming frames regardless of their destination MAC address.

B. The router decapsulates the packet and inspects the destination IP address.

C. Routers do not need to decapsulate packets to inspect the destination IP address.

D. Routers make routing decisions first by examining the source MAC address.

None

50.

50. Which command will display the router’s ARP cache?

A. Router#show arp

B. Router#show arp table

C. Router#show arp cache

D. Router#show ip arp

None

51.

51. What is the default time an entry will live in the ARP cache?

A. 180 seconds

B. 240 seconds

C. 300 seconds

D. 600 seconds

None

52.

52. Which type of routing allows for routers to share their routing tables with other routers in the network?

A. Default routing

B. Stub routing

C. Static routing

D. Dynamic routing

None

53.

53. Which statement describes what happens during the routing process?

A. As a packet travels through the routers, the TTL of the packet will increase by one.

B. When a route to the destination network is found, the router will attach the destination MAC address for the next hop to the packet.

C. When a packet travels through the router, the transport information will be checked for the destination network.

D. When a route to the destination network is found, the router will attach the destination IP address for the next hop to the packet.

None

54.

54. Which protocol allows for testing and connectivity of a route?

A. IGMP

B. RARP

C. ARP

D. ICMP

None

55.

55. Which routing protocol is a distance-vector routing protocol?

A. OSPF

B. RIP

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

None

56.

56. When an ICMP packet reaches a router for which it has no further route, what happens?

A. The router will discard the packet without notification.

B. The router will change the TTL of the packet to 0.

C. The router will send the packet back to the originating host.

D. The router will send back a destination unreachable message.

None

57.

57. Which statement accurately describes a routing loop?

A. Packets are routed out one interface but come back on a different interface.

B. Packets are transmitted within a series of routers and never reach the destination.

C. Packets reach the expiry TTL before reaching the destination network.

D. Packets are routed via an inefficient path.

None

58.

58. Which routing protocol is a link-state routing protocol?

A. OSPF

B. RIP

C. EIGRP

D. IGRP

None

59.

59. Where are dynamic routes stored in a router?

A. RAM

B. Flash

C. Startup configuration

D. Running configuration

None

60.

60. Which is a correct statement about SVI inter-VLAN routing (IVR)?

A. Latency is low with SVI IVR because of ASICs.

B. Latency is high with SVI inter-VLAN routing because of resource use.

C. SVI inter-VLAN routing is a cheaper alternative to ROAS.

D. Bandwidth is limited compared to ROAS.

None

61.

61. Which is a disadvantage of using ROAS?

A. The lack of ISL support for VLANs.

B. The number of VLANs you can route is tied to the number of physical ports.

C. Scalability of ROAS for the number of VLANs.

D. The lack of dynamic routing protocol support.

None

62.

62. Which is a correct statement about IVR?

A. Each VLAN requires a unique IP network.

B. IVR reduces the number of broadcast domains.

C. It does not support ACLs.

D. IVR restricts the use of subnetting.

None

63.

63. What is the method of using a single router interface to route between VLANs called?

A. Interface routing

B. ROAS routing

C. SVI routing

D. Bridge routing

None

64.

64. What is a disadvantage of routing between VLANs on a router’s interface?

A. Routers do not handle large amounts of traffic very well.

B. When using ROAS, bandwidth problems are encountered.

C. Security cannot be implemented with ROAS.

D. Broadcast traffic is increased.

None

65.

65. What is the method of routing between VLANs on a layer 3 switch?

A. Interface routing

B. ROAS routing

C. SVI routing

D. Bridge routing

None

66.

66. Which routing technique requires no administrator intervention when a route goes down?

A. Dynamic routing

B. Directly connected routes

C. Default routing

D. Static routing

None

67.

67. Which routing technique requires increased time for configuration as networks grow?

A. RIP routing

B. OSPF routing

C. Static routing

D. Default routing

None

68.

68. Which routing technique requires the lowest amount of router RAM consumption?

A. RIP routing

B. OSPF routing

C. Static routing

D. Default routing

None

69.

69. Which dynamic routing protocol has the lowest overhead?

A. BGP

B. OSPF

C. RIP

D. EIGRP

None

70.

70. Which is an advantage of dynamic routing protocols?

A. Resiliency when routes become unavailable

B. Lower router RAM usage

C. Lower router CPU usage

D. Less bandwidth usage

None

71.

71. Which routing protocol broadcasts updates for routes?

A. RIP

B. OSPF

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

None

72.

72. What is an advantage of dynamic routing protocols?

A. Centralized routing tables

B. Optimized route selection

C. Ease of configuration

D. Lower bandwidth utilization

None

73.

73. Which routing protocol has a maximum of 15 hops?

A. RIP

B. OSPF

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

None

74.

74. Which protocol is considered a hybrid protocol?

A. RIP

B. OSPF

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

None

75.

75. What is a characteristic of distance-vector protocols?

A. They track the status of routes learned.

B. They re-advertise routes learned.

C. Each router keeps its own topology database.

D. Each router checks the routes it learns.

None

76.

76. Which type of network are distance-vector protocols best suited for?

A. Networks containing fewer than 255 routes

B. Networks containing fewer than 15 routers

C. Networks containing more than 15 routers

D. Networks containing more than 255 routers

None

77.

77. Which problem could arise from use of a distance-vector routing protocol?

A. Routing loops

B. Router incompatibility

C. Complexity of configuration

D. Default route advertisement

None

78.

78. Which dynamic routing protocol uses the Diffusing Update Algorithm as its routing algorithm?

A. RIP

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. BGP

None

79.

79. Which is a disadvantage of distance-vector routing protocols?

A. Router incompatibility for RIP

B. Slow convergence of routing tables

C. Resource usage of CPU and RAM

D. The complexity of RIP design

None

80.

80. Which dynamic routing protocol uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm?

A. RIP

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. BGP

None

81.

81. Which is a design concept used to stop routing loops with distancevector dynamic routing protocols?

A. Use of a topology database

B. Use of holddown timers

C. Use of anti-flapping ACLs

D. Use of counting-to-infinity conditions

None

82.

82. Which is an exterior gateway routing protocol?

A. RIPv1

B. OSPF

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

None

83.

83. Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary interior gateway protocol?

A. RIPv1

B. OSPF

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

None

84.

84. Which statement is correct about interior gateway protocols (IGPs) vs. exterior gateway protocols (EGPs)?

A. IGPs are used to exchange information between autonomous systems.

B. EGPs are used to exchange information between routers within an autonomous system.

C. IGPs are used to exchange information between routers within an autonomous system.

D. EGPs are used in the core of an internal network.

None

85.

85. Which statement is correct about IGPs?

A. IGPs require a small number of resources, such as CPU and RAM.

B. IGPs function within an administrative domain.

C. An EGP is an example of an IGP.

D. IGPs use autonomous system numbers (ASNs) that have been assigned by ARIN.

None

86.

86. Why would you need to use an EGP?

A. You need to connect your company to the Internet.

B. You have been delegated a large number of IP addresses.

C. You want to achieve fast routing to the Internet.

D. You are dual-homed with two different ISPs.

None

87.

87. When RIP is configured on a router, what must be configured to allow for classless routing?

A. Router(config)#ip classless

B. Router(config)#router rip v2

C. Router(config-router)#ip classless

D. Router(config-router)#version 2

None

88.

88. You need to configure the advertisement of the network 192.168.1.0/24 for RIPv2. Which command will achieve this?

A. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.1.0

B. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

C. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.1.0/24

D. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0

None

89.

89. What is the entry for the IP address in the routing table called in IOS 15 code when an interface is configured?

A. IP address route

B. Local route

C. Dynamic route

D. Static route

None

90.

90. Which metric does RIPv2 use to calculate routes?

B. Bandwidth

A. Delay

C. Hop count

D. Bandwidth and delay

None

91.

91. Which command will allow you to inspect RIPv2 calculations for routes discovered?

A. Router#show ip protocols rip

B. Router#show ip rip database

C. Router#show ip interface

D. Router#show ip rip topology

None

92.

92. Which command would allow you to see the next hop information for CEF?

A. Router#show cef

B. Router#show ip cef

C. Router#show cef nop

D. Router#show cef route

None

93.

93. Which component of a network transmission changes during the routing process?

A. Destination MAC address

B. Destination IP address

C. Source IP address

D. Internal routes

None

94.

94. What will a router do if a matching route is not present in the router table?

A. Flood the packet to all active interfaces

B. Multicast the packet to other routers

C. Drop the packet

D. Send the original packet back to the source

None

95.

95. By default, which type of routing is used automatically on a router?

A. Default routing

B. Dynamic routes

C. Static routes

D. Connected routes

None

96.

96. Which command would set the IPv6 default route for a router to interface s0/0?

A. Router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0/0 s0/0

B. Router(config)#ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 s0/0

C. Router(config)#ipv6 unicast-route ::0/0 s0/0

D. Router(config)#ipv6 route ::0/0 s0/0

None

97.

97. Which dynamic routing protocol(s) can be used with IPv6?

A. RIPng

B. OSPFv3

C. EIGRPv6

D. All of the above

None

98.

98. You need to see all routes in the routing table for only IPv6. Which command will achieve this?

A. Router#show route

B. Router#show ip route

C. Router#show ipv6 route

D. Router#show route ipv6

None

99.

99. What is the relevance of the default gateway address on a host that is transmitting to a destination for the first time?

A. The destination IP address is replaced with the default gateway when the destination is remote.

B. The host sends the default gateway packets that are deemed remote via a broadcast.

C. The host sends an ARP packet for the default gateway when the destination is remote.

D. The host creates a dedicated connection with the default gateway for remote traffic.

None

100.

100. Which command will display the router’s routing table?

A. Router#show ip route

B. Router#show route

C. Router#show route table

D. Router#show routes

None

101.

101. Which protocol is used by TCP/IP to help facilitate the routing of packets?

A. IGMP

B. RARP

C. ARP

D. ICMP

None

102.

102. What uses ICMP to directly check the status of a router?

A. SNMP traps

B. Notifications

C. Ping

D. ARP

None

103.

103. You have just used the ping command for a distant router. You received back five exclamation marks. What do these mean?

A. The distant router is not responding.

B. The distant router has a high response time.

C. The distant router is responding.

D. The distant router has a low response time.

None

104.

104. You need to create a route for a network of 192.168.4.0/24 through the gateway of serial 0/1 on a 2621 router. Which is the proper command?

A. Router(config)#ip route 192.168.4.0/24 serial 0/1

B. Router(config)#ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

C. Router(config)#ip route 192.168.4.0/24 interface serial 0/1

D. Router(config)#ip route Router(configrtr)# 192.168.4.0/24 serial 0/1

None

105.

105. You type into the router ip default-gateway 192.168.11.2. Why will traffic not route out the default gateway?

A. The ip default-network needs to be used in conjunction with ip default-gateway 192.168.11.2.

B. The command is only used for the management plane of the router itself.

C. The command is used for dynamic routing only.

D. The specified gateway is wrong.

None

106.

106. In the following exhibit, which route statement needs to be configured on Router A to allow routing to Network B?

A. RouterA(config)#ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

B. RouterA(config)#ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1

C. RouterA(config)#ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2

D. RouterA(config)#ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

None

107.

107. When you configure an IP address on a router interface, what happens to the routing table?

A. The router creates a /32 route for the IP address.

B. The router creates a summary address for the network.

C. The router creates a routing update if dynamic routing is configured.

D. All of the above.

None

108.

108. You want to verify the IP addresses configured on the router. Which command will you use?

A. Router#show ip

B. Router#show ip interfaces brief

C. Router#show interfaces

D. Router#show ip brief

None

109.

109. You configure a brand-new IP address on a new router’s interface. However, when you look at the routing table, it does not show up. You see a link light on the interface. What is wrong?

A. The interface is administratively shut down.

B. The interface speed is incorrect.

C. The interface bandwidth is not set.

D. The route will not show up until you save the config.

None

110.

110. What is a benefit of static routing?

A. Adding networks is an easy task for network administrators..

B. It is suited for large networks because changes will not disturb routing

C. It reduces bandwidth used by router-to-router communications.

D. It allows for configuration by any network admin in the network.

None

111.

111. Where are static routes stored?

A. RAM

B. Flash

C. Startup configuration

D. Routing database

None

112.

112. You want to route 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24 to a destination address of 198.43.23.2. How can you accomplish this with one route statement so that other networks are not affected?

A. Router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 198.43.23.2

B. Router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 198.43.23.2

C. Router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 198.43.23.2

D. Router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.240 198.43.23.2

None

113.

113. Why would you create a second route statement to the same network using a different AD and different interface?

A. If the first one fails to route to the destination, the second route will succeed.

B. If the first interface goes down, the second route will become active.

C. If there is a high amount of traffic on the first interface, the second route will become active.

D. If there is a routing loop on the first interface, the second will overcome the loop.

None

114.

114. Which route statement is configured when an IP address of 208.43.34.17/29 is configured on an interface?

A. S 208.43.34.17/32 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

B. S 208.43.34.24/29 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

C. S 208.43.34.8/29 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

D. S 208.43.34.17/29 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

None

115.

115. In the following exhibit, which network is routable?

A. The 172.30.0/16 network

B. The 192.168.128.0/24 network

C. The 192.168.0.0/16 network

D. The 192.168.4.0/24 network

None

116.

116. In the following exhibit, what must be configured on Router B to allow routing to Network A?

A. RouterB(config)#ip route 198.44.4.0/24 198.55.4.9

B. RouterB(config)#ip route 198.44.4.0 255.255.255.0 198.55.4.10

C. RouterB(config)#ip route 198.44.4.0 255.255.255.0 Serial 0/0

D. RouterB(config)#ip route 198.44.4.0 255.255.255.0 Serial 0/1

None

117.

117. Which route statement is configured when an IP address of 194.22.34.54/28 is configured on an interface?

A. S 194.22.34.48/28 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

B. S 194.22.34.64/28 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

C. S 194.22.34.54/28 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

D. S 194.22.34.32/28 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

None

118.

118. Which command will create a default route through Serial 0/0 for IPv6?

A. Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

B. Router(config)# ipv6 route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

C. Router(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/0

D. Router(config)# ip route ::/0 serial 0/0

None

119.

119. Which command would configure the route for an IPv6 network of FC00:0:0:1 with the exit interface of serial 0/0/0?

A. Router(config)#ip route fc00:0:0:1 serial 0/0/0

B. Router(config)#ipv6 route fc00:0:0:1/64 serial 0/0/0

C. Router(config)#ip route fc00:0:0:1/64 serial 0/0

D. Router(config)#ipv6 route fc00:0:0:1 serial 0/0/0

None

120.

120. In the following exhibit, which interface or IP address will a packet be routed to with a destination address of 192.168.5.6?

A. IP address of 192.168.4.2

B. IP address of 192.168.4.5

C. Interface Serial 0/0/1

D. Interface Serial 0/2/0

None

121.

121. What is the purpose of issuing the command no switchport on a layer 3 switch?

A. It configures an SVI.

B. It configures an access port.

C. It configures a trunk port.

D. It configures a port as a routed interface.

None

122.

122. You need to configure a router that has three interfaces to route five VLANs. What is the best way to accomplish this task?

A. Purchase another router with additional interfaces.

B. Configure the router as a ROAS.

C. Purchase a new router with five interfaces.

D. Configure a dynamic routing protocol.

None

123.

123. Which command do you need to enter on a switch to allow routing between VLANs?

A. Switch(config)#routing

B. Switch(config)#ip router

C. Switch(config)#ip routing

D. Switch(config)#ip route

None

124.

124. When routing between VLANs with a router’s interface, which trunking protocol is always supported?

A. 802.1x

B. 802.1Q

C. ISL

D. VTP

None

125.

125. Which command would configure the interface on the ROAS configuration as the native VLAN?

A. Router(config-subif)#switchport native vlan 2

B. Router(config-if)#interface gi 0/1.2 native

C. Router(config-subif)#native vlan 2

D. Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 2 native

None

126.

126. Which commands would you use to configure an IP address on an SVI?

A. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)#no shutdown
B. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.1/24
C. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.1/24
Switch(config-if)#no shutdown
D. Switch(config)#vlan 10
Switch(config-vlan)#ip address 192.168.10.1
255.255.255.0
Switch(config-vlan)#no shutdown

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

None

127.

127. When configuring ROAS, which mode must be configured for the switch port on the switch?

A. Trunk mode

B. Access mode

C. Routed mode

D. Switched mode

None

128.

128. When configuring the subinterfaces on a router for ROAS, what is a best practice when naming the subinterface?

A. Always name the subinterface the same as the VLAN name.

B. Always name the subinterface the same as the VLAN number.

C. Always name the subinterface the same as the default gateway address.

D. Always name the subinterface the same as the switch’s interface number.

None

129.

129. Which command enables the routers to direct the frames for a particular VLAN to the subinterface?

A. Router(config-if)#interface gi 0/1.5

B. Router(config-subif)#vlan 5

C. Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 5

D. Router(config-subif)#switchport access vlan 5

None

130.

130. Which command must be entered on 2960-XR switches to enable IP routing?

A. Switch(config)#ip lanbase

B. Switch(config)#sdm prefer lanbase-routing

C. Switch(config)#sdm lanbase-routing

D. Switch(config)#sdm routing

None

131.

131. You want to verify the configured SVI VLAN interfaces. Which command will show you the configured IP addresses on each of the SVI VLAN interfaces?

A. Switch#show ip interface brief

B. Switch#show interfaces status

C. Switch#show svi

D. Switch#show switchports ip

None

132.

132. You enter the command ip address 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 on interface VLAN 2. When you enter the command, you receive a “Bad mask /24 for address” error. What is the problem?

A. The subnet mask is incorrect.

B. The subnet of 192.168.2.0 cannot be used for this interface.

C. The IP address is invalid.

D. The VLAN has not been configured yet.

None

133.

133. You have purchased a layer 3 switch with the LAN Base feature. When you enter ip routing in global configuration mode, you receive an “Invalid input detected” error. What is the problem?

A. There are no IP addresses configured on the switch.

B. The SDM of LAN Base routing has not been enabled.

C. There is not enough memory for routing tables.

D. The IP Base feature is required.

None

134.

134. You have a 3560 switch that supports layer 3 routing. You need to configure a physical interface to route a subnet. Which command needs to be used?

A. Switch(config-if)#switchport routed

B. Switch(config-if)#no ip-routing

C. Switch(config-if)#no switchport

D. Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

None

135.

135. Which command will allow you to examine a switch’s port to see if it is routed or switched?

A. Switch#show interface gi 0/2 switchport

B. Switch#show interface gi 0/2 state

C. Switch#show switchport interface gi 0/2

D. Switch#show status interface gi 0/2

None

136.

136. You need to configure ROAS on a router’s interface to route VLAN 5 with ISL. Which command will specify the encapsulation and achieve this?

A. Router(config-if)#encapsulation 5

B. Router(config-if)#encapsulation isl 5

C. Router(config-subif)#switchport encapsulation isl 5

D. Router(config-subif)#encapsulation isl 5

None

137.

137. You have just configured a new VLAN and have configured the SVI with an IP address and no shutdown command on the interface. However, when you perform a show ip route, it does not show a valid directly connected route for the SVI. What is the problem?

A. The VLAN is in a shutdown state.

B. No interfaces have been configured with the new VLAN yet.

C. The show ip route command will not display SVI directly connected routes.

D. No dynamic routing protocols have been configured.

None

138.

138. Which of the following is a correct statement about ROAS?

A. Using a ROAS is a highly efficient alternative to routed SVIs.

B. Using a ROAS is a cheaper alternative to inter-VLAN routing on a switch.

C. A ROAS can only be used with 802.1Q.

D. A ROAS is limited to a maximum of 16 routes.

None

139.

139. Before configuring ROAS, which command should be entered in the interface connecting to the switch?

A. Router(config-if)#ip routing

B. Router(config-if)#no ip address

C. Router(config-if)#ip encapsulation dot1q

D. Router(config-if)#sdm routing

None

140.

140. You have configured a ROAS and set up the switch to connect to the router. However, you cannot route between VLANs. Which command would you use on the switch to verify operations?

A. Switch#show ip route

B. Switch#show interface status

C. Switch#show interface trunk

D. Switch#show switchport

None

141.

141. When configuring a router in a ROAS configuration, which command will enable the interface to accept frames tagged for VLAN 10?

A. Switch(config-subif)#encapsulation vlan 10 dot1q

B. Switch(config-if)#interface Fa 0/0.10

C. Switch(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10

D. Switch(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0

None

142.

142. Which statement is correct about ARP in relation to ROAS?

A. Each physical interface has a unique MAC address, which responds to ARP requests.

B. Each subinterface has a unique MAC address, which responds to ARP requests.

C. Each IP address has a unique MAC address, which responds to ARP requests.

D. All of the above.

None

143.

143. Which statement is correct about implementing ROAS?

A. Each IP address is configured on the subinterface as the gateway for the VLAN.

B. The main interface must be configured with the summary IP address for all VLANs.

C. You must configure at least one native VLAN.

D. All of the above.

None

144.

144. Which routing technique is a type of static routing?

A. OSPF routing

B. EIGRP routing

C. Default routing

D. RIP routing

None

145.

145. Which is an advantage of using static routing?

A. There is less administrative overhead.

B. It is extremely secure.

C. It can create resiliency in a network.

D. It is extremely scalable without issues.

None

146.

146. Which routing technique has the lowest bandwidth overhead?

A. RIP routing

B. OSPF routing

C. EIGRP routing

D. Static routing

None

147.

147. Which type of routing technique allows for route summarization to be computed automatically by routers?

A. Dynamic routing

B. Directly connected routes

C. Default routing

D. Static routing

None

148.

148. Which routing technique requires administrator intervention when a route goes down?

A. Dynamic routing

B. Directly connected routes

C. Default routing

D. Static routing

None

149.

149. You have several routes configured on a router. Which command will show only the static routes?

A. Router#show static routes

B. Router#show ip static routes

C. Router#show ip routes static

D. Router#show ip routes

None

150.

150. On interface Serial 0/1, you type ipv6 address 2000:db8:4400:2300::1234/64. Which statement is true?

A. The router will calculate a network ID of 2000:0db8::.

B. The IPv6 address of 2000:0db8:4400:2300:1234:0000:0000:0000/128 will be assigned to Serial 0/0.

C. The router will calculate a network ID of 2000:0db8:4400:2300::/64 for Serial 0/0.

D. The router will calculate a network ID of 2000:db8:4400:2300:0000/64 for Serial 0/0.

None

151.

151. When you check the IPv6 addresses configured on the interfaces, you find two IPv6 addresses: One address is a 2001:db8::/64 address, and the other is an ff80::/64 address. However, you do not see a route statement for the ff80::/64 address in the routing table. Why?

A. Multicast addresses do not get added to the routing tables.

B. Link-local addresses do not get added to the routing tables.

C. Only one route statement can be in the routing table at a time for an interface.

D. Broadcast addresses do not get added to the routing tables.

None

152.

152. In the following exhibit, RIP is running on all of the routers. On Router A, you want to make sure that if Router B fails, a backup route is used through Router C to Network B. Which statement will achieve this?

A. RouterA(config)#ip route 192.168.2.8 255.255.255.252 192.168.2.6

B. RouterA(config)#ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.6 220

C. RouterA(config)#ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.6 90

D. RouterA(config)#ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.10

None

153.

153. In the following exhibit, which command on Router B will allow hosts on Network B to reach the Internet?

A. RouterB(config-if )#ipv6 address default

B. RouterB(config)#ip route ::/0 serial 0/3/0

C. RouterB(config-if)#ipv6 address autoconfig default

D. RouterB(config-if)#ipv6 address slaac

None

154.

154. You have RIPv2 configured on an Internet-facing router. Which command will propagate the default route to all other RIPv2 routers?

A. Router(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0

B. Router(config-router)#default-route advertise

C. Router(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 default

D. Router(config-router)#default-information originate

None

155.

155. You need to implement default routing. Which command will help you achieve this?

A. RouterA(config)#ip default-network 192.168.2.6

B. RouterA(config)#ip route default-gateway 192.168.2.6

C. RouterA(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.6

D. RouterA(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.2.6

None

156.

156. You ping a distant router in your network and find that the TTL returned in 252. What can you conclude?

A. The ping took 252 milliseconds.

B. The ping has a delay of 252 milliseconds.

C. The ping moved through 252 routers.

D. The ping moved through 3 routers.

None

157.

157. Which command would you use so that you can view only the RIP route entries in the route table?

A. RouterA#show ip rip

B. RouterA#show ip route

C. RouterA#show ip rip route

D. RouterA#show ip route rip

None

158.

158. Which protocol is a true link-state protocol?

A. RIP

B. OSPF

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

None

159.

159. Which dynamic routing protocol uses the Dijkstra routing algorithm?

A. RIP

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. BGP

None

160.

160. Why don’t link-state protocols suffer from routing loops as distancevector protocols do?

A. Link-state protocols require routers to maintain their own topology database of the network.

B. Link-state protocols share the topology database among all routers.

C. Link-state protocols allow routers to maintain a link-state database of all routers.

D. Link-state protocols use multiple routes to the same destination.

None

161.

161. What is an advantage of a link-state dynamic routing protocol?

A. The only metric needed is hop count.

B. Link-state dynamic routing protocols support CIDR and VLSM.

C. OSPF requires only a small amount of resources such as CPU and RAM.

D. Link-state dynamic routing protocols use triggered updates for recalculation of routing tables.

None

162.

162. What type of network is best suited for a link-state routing protocol such as OSPF?

A. Extremely small networks of three routers

B. Networks with routers that have a limited amount of RAM and CPU

C. Large hierarchical networks like global networks

D. Networks within organizations with limited training of network admins

None

163.

163. Which is an example of an interior gateway protocol that is nonproprietary?

A. EGP

B. OSPF

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

None

164.

164. You have several sites, each with a different administrative unit, in your company. Which routing protocol should you choose?

A. BGP

B. OSPF

C. RIPv2

D. EGP

None

165.

165. Which area must be present when using the OSPF routing protocol with multiple areas?

A. Area 0

B. Area 1

C. Area 10

D. Area 4

None

166.

166. In the following exhibit, what is Router A called in OSPF terminology?

A. Area border router

B. Autonomous system router

C. Autonomous system boundary router

D. Area backup router

None

167.

167. Which multicast address is used by OSPF for neighbor discovery?

A. 224.0.0.9

B. 224.0.0.5

C. 224.0.0.6

D. 224.0.0.7

None

168.

168. In the following exhibit, what are Routers C, D, and E called in OSPF terminology?

A. Area border routers

B. Autonomous system routers

C. Autonomous system boundary routers

D. Area backup routers

None

169.

169. Which statement is true about OSPF?

A. OSPF is a distance-vector protocol.

B. OSPF performs default auto-summarization.

C. OSPF broadcasts changes to the routing tables.

D. OSPF updates are event triggered

None

170.

170. How do Cisco routers determine their router ID (RID)?

A. The lowest IP address configured on the loopback interfaces

B. The highest IP address configured on the router

C. The lowest IP address configured on the router

D. The highest MAC address configured on the router

None

171.

171. What is the definition of an OSPF link?

A. Two routers participating in OSPF routing

B. Two routers that share the same area ID

C. A routed interface added to the OSPF process

D. Two routers that share the same AS number

None

172.

172. Which statement is correct about adjacency with OSPF on a broadcast network (LAN)?

A. An adjacency is formed between routers on the same link.

B. An adjacency is formed between the designated router (DR) and every neighbor router on the same area.

C. An adjacency is formed between the DR and every router in the same autonomous system.

D. An adjacency is formed between the DR and every router in the same OSPF area.

None

173.

173. How is a DR elected for OSPF?

A. The DR is elected by the highest priority and highest RID in the same autonomous system.

B. The DR is elected by the lowest priority and highest RID in the same area.

C. The DR is elected by the lowest priority and lowest RID.

D. The DR is elected by the highest priority and highest RID in the same area.

None

174.

174. In which database can you see all of the routers discovered in the OSPF network in which hello packets were sent and acknowledged?

A. The routing table database

B. The neighborship database

C. The topological database

D. The link-state database

None

175.

175. Which is a correct statement about OSPF?

A. OSPF uses autonomous systems for scalability.

B. OSPF uses process IDs for scalability.

C. OSPF uses areas for scalability.

D. OSPF uses RID for scalability.

None

176.

176. Which is an example of a broadcast (multi-access) network?

A. An X.25 network

B. Frame Relay

C. ATM network

D. A LAN

None

177.

177. Which multicast address is used by OSPF for communication between the DR and adjacencies formed?

A. 224.0.0.9

B. 224.0.0.5

C. 224.0.0.6

D. 224.0.0.7

None

178.

178. What does the command router ospf 20 configure?

A. An OSPF router process ID of 20

B. An OSPF router area of 20

C. An OSPF router autonomous system of 20

D. An OSPF cost of 20

None

179.

179. Which command will verify the bandwidth of an interface participating in OSPF?

A. Router#show ospf

B. Router#show interface

C. Router#show running-config

D. Router#show ospf interface

None

180.

180. Which command will tune the cost of the OSPF metrics for integration with non-Cisco routers to participate in OSPF?

A. Router(config-if)#ip cost 20000

B. Router(config)#ip ospf cost 20000

C. Router(config)#ip cost 20000

D. Router(config-if)#ip ospf cost 20000

None

181.

181. Which command will configure a network of 192.168.1.0/24 for OSPF area 0?

A. Router(config)#router ospf 0
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
B. Router(config)#ospf 0
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
C. Router(config)#router ospf 0
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
D. Router(config)#router ospf 1
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
area 0

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

None

182.

182. What is the default number of equal-cost routes for OSPF on Cisco routers?

A. 4 routes

B. 8 routes

C. 16 routes

D. 32 routes

None

183.

183. You want to advertise a network of 131.40.32.0/27 with OSPF. Which wildcard mask will you need to use?

A. 255.255.224.0

B. 0.0.32.255

C. 0.0.0.31

D. 0.0.224.255

None

184.

184. Which command will allow changing the number of equal-cost routes for OSPF?

A. Router(config)#ospf equal-cost 10

B. Router(config-router)#ospf equal-cost 10

C. Router(config)#ospf maximum-paths 10

D. Router(config-router)#maximum-paths 10

None

185.

185. What is the maximum number of equal-cost routes that can be configured for OSPF on Cisco routers?

A. 4 routes

B. 8 routes

C. 16 routes

D. 32 routes

None

186.

186. Which command will allow you to verify the router’s RID for OSPF?

A. Router#show ip ospf

B. Router#show ip interface

C. Router#show ip ospf rid

D. Router#show ip ospf neighbor

None

187.

187. You want to advertise a network of 192.168.1.16/28 with OSPF. Which wildcard mask will you need to use?

A. 0.0.0.16

B. 255.255.255.240

C. 0.0.0.15

D. 0.0.0.240

None

188.

188. Which command will allow you to verify if a remote router has formed an adjacency with the current router?

A. Router#show ip ospf neighbor

B. Router#show router adjacency

C. Router#show ip ospf

D. Router#show ip ospf router

None

189.

189. What is the default OSPF hello interval in which hello packets are sent out on a broadcast (multi-access) network?

A. 5 seconds

B. 10 seconds

C. 30 seconds D.

60 seconds

None

190.

190. You are running OSPF on a router. One of the interfaces, Gi0/1, connects to your ISP. You want to make sure you do not forward any OSPF packets to your ISP. How can you achieve this?

A. Router(config-if)#passive-interface

B. Router(config-router)#passive-interface gigabitethernet 0/1

C. Router(config)#passive-interface gigabitethernet 0/1

D. Router(config-if)#passive-interface default

None

191.

191. Which command will allow you to verify the interfaces that hello packets are being sent out for OSPF?

A. Router#show interfaces

B. Router#show ip routes

C. Router#show ip ospf interface

D. Router#show ip ospf brief

None

192.

192. Which command will statically set the RID for OSPF and override all others?

A. Router(config)#interface fa 0/1 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.5 255.255.255.0

B. Router(config)#interface loopback 0 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.5 255.255.255.0

C. Router(config-router)#rid 192.168.1.5

D. Router(config-router)#router-id 192.168.1.5

None

193.

193. In the following exhibit. Which command(s) will only allow interface Gi0/2 to send hello packets for OSPF

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

None

194.

194. After changing the router’s RID for OSPF, which command needs to be entered?

A. Router#clear ip ospf

B. Router(config-router)#shutdown Router(config-router)#no shutdown

C. Router(config-router)#clear ip ospf

D. Router#clear ospf

None

195.

195. Which statement about OSPF area border routers is correct?

A. ABRs sit between an autonomous system and OSPF.

B. ABRs exchange Type 1 link-state advertisements between areas.

C. ABRs exchange Type 2 link-state advertisements between areas.

D. ABRs exchange Type 3 link-state advertisements between areas.

None

196.

196. In the following exhibit, you have two areas that you want OSPF to advertise routes for. Which command(s) will achieve this?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

None

197.

197. Which command will allow you to see the summary of OSPF linkstate advertisements?

A. Router#show ip ospf database

B. Router#show ip ospf states

C. Router#show ip ospf neighbors

D. Router#show ip ospf topology

None

198.

198. You have configured OSPF on Router B. The network command entered was network 197.234.3.0 0.0.0.63 area 0. You find out that one of the interfaces is not participating in OSPF. Which interface is not participating? Refer to the following exhibit.

A. Interface Serial 0/3/0

B. Interface Serial 0/3/0.1

C. Interface Serial 0/3/0.2

D. Interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

None

199.

199. Two routers, called Router A and Router B, are configured in the same area and share a common LAN. However, they cannot form an adjacency. What could the problem be?

A. There is a static route configured between the two routers.

B. Router A is configured with multiple area IDs.

C. Router A is configured with a hello timer of 30.

D. Router B is configured with a hello timer of 10.

None

200.

200. Which is a direct benefit of a hierarchical OSPF design?

A. Fast convergence

B. Reduction of configuration complexity

C. Increased bandwidth

D. Better security

None

201.

201. In the following exhibit, which router is the DR?

A. Router C

B. Router B

C. Router D

D. Router E

None

202.

202. In the following exhibit, what is Router B called in this hierarchy?

A. ASBR

B. ABR

C. DR

D. BDR

None

203.

203. You have configured a router with the following command. However, when you enter show ip routes you do not see any routes for OSPF. What is the problem? Router(config)#router ospf 255 Router(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 255

A. The process ID is incorrect.

B. The area number is incorrect.

C. The subnet mask is incorrect.

D. The network ID is incorrect.

None

204.

204. In the following exhibit, Router A and Router B will not form an adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

A. The hello and dead timers do not match.

B. The link is a point-to-point connection.

C. The process IDs do not match.

D. The area IP addresses do not match.

None

205.

205. Which state in the neighbor table indicates that the router has successfully downloaded the LSA information from a neighboring router?

A. FULL state

B. EXSTART state

C. INIT state

D. EXCHANGE state

None

206.

206. In the following exhibit, which is a correct statement about the neighbor ID of 192.168.2.2?

A. The neighbor is having a problem forming an adjacency.

B. The neighbor’s OSPF process is recalculating cost.

C. This router’s OSPF process is recalculating cost.

D. Both routers have formed an adjacency.

None

207.

207. You have two links that enter the same OSPF router with the same bandwidth. You want to prefer one route over the other yet allow the second as a backup route. Which command would you use to achieve this?

A. Router(config-router)#ip ospf priority 25

B. Router(config-if)#ip ospf route primary

C. Router(config-if)#ip ospf cost 25

D. Router(config-router)#passive interface gi 0/0

None

208.

208. Referring to the following exhibit, which is a correct statement about router ID 192.168.2.2?

A. It is in the process of forming an adjacency

B. It is the designated router.

C. It is not participating in this OSPF area.

D. It will only form an adjacency with the DR or BDR.

None

209.

209. Refer to the following exhibit. You want to make Router D the DR. Which command will assure that it becomes the DR?

A. RouterD(config-router)#ospf priority

B. RouterD(config-if)#ip ospf priority 10

C. RouterD(config-if)#ip address 192.168.5.2 255.255.255.0

D. RouterD(config-if)#ip ospf cost 15

None

210.

210. Which command will display the DR for a LAN?

A. Router#show ip ospf neighbor

B. Router#show ip ospf database

C. Router#show ip ospf dr

D. Router#show ip ospf interface

None

211.

211. In the following exhibit, Router A will not form an adjacency with Router B. What is the problem?

A. The hello and dead timers do not match.

B. There is no designated router on the network.

C. The process IDs do not match.

D. The area IDs do not match.

None

212.

212. In the following exhibit, you have one OSPF area and want to populate the default route to all routers in the OSPF area. Which command would you use?

A. RouterA(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

B. RouterA(config-router)#default-route originate

C. RouterA(config-router)#default-information originate

D. RouterA(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

None

213.

213. Which command will set the bandwidth of an interface to 2.048 Mb/s?

A. Router(config-if)#bandwidth 2048

B. Router(config-if)#bandwidth 2048000000

C. Router(config-if)#bandwidth 2.048

D. Router(config-if)#bandwidth 2048000

None

214.

214. Which command would you use to make sure Router A never becomes a DR?

A. Router(config)#no ospf designated

B. Router(config-router)#no ospf designated

C. Router(config-router)#passive interface gi 0/0

D. Router(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

None

215.

215. Which command will configure a loopback interface with an address of 192.168.1.2/24?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

None

216.

216. Which is a correct statement about support for OSPF on an MPLS network?

A. The provider edge (PE) routers can only host area 0.

B. The customer edge (CE) routers can only host area 0.

C. The customer edge (CE) routers must use GRE for OSPF.

D. Both the customer edge (CE) routers and the provider edge (PE) routers can participate in area 0.

None

217.

217. What is the default priority for Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routers?

A. 1

B. 100

C. 255

D. 32,768

None

218.

218. You have changed the router’s priority for OSPF to make the router the DR, but the router has not become a DR. What must be done to force the election?

A. You must use the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the interface with the highest IP address.

B. In global configuration mode, you must enter the command ospf election force.

C. In privileged exec mode, you must enter the command clear ip ospf process x.

D. In privileged exec mode on the DR, you must enter the command clear ip ospf process x.

None

219.

219. Two routers, called Router A and Router B, are configured in the same area on Frame Relay. However, they cannot form an adjacency. What could the problem be?

A. The two routers do not have the same hello timer of 30 seconds.

B. Router A is configured with multiple area IDs.

C. Router A is configured with a hello timer of 10.

D. Router B is configured with a hello timer of 10.

None

220.

220. What is the AD for OSPF?

A. 90

B. 110

C. 120

D. 200

None

221.

221. Which protocol is an IEEE standard that is supported openly as a first hop redundancy protocol (FHRP)?

A. Proxy ARP

B. VRRP

C. GLBP

D. HSRP

None

222.

222. In the MAC address 0000.0c07.ac0a, what is the well-known Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) ID?

A. 0000.0c

B. oc07

C. 0a

D. 07.ac

None

223.

223. Which protocol is a Cisco Proprietary protocol for load-balancing routers?

A. Proxy ARP

B. VRRP

C. GLBP

D. HSRP

None

224.

224. In the MAC address 0000.0c07.ac01, what is the HSRPv1 group number?

A. 0000.0c

B. 0c07

C. 01

D. 07.ac

None

225.

225. What is the default priority of HSRP?

A. 100

B. 110

C. 200

D. 10

None

226.

226. What is the maximum number of HSRPv1 groups that can be created?

A. 8

B. 16

C. 255

D. 256

None

227.

227. Which port and protocol are used by HSRP for communications?

A. UDP/1935

B. UDP/1985

C. UDP/1895

D. UCP/3222

None

228.

228. Which statement is correct about HSRP?

A. All routers in an HSRP group are active.

B. Only one router in an HSRP group can be active.

C. The virtual router sends hello packets to the HSRP group.

D. HSRP allows for per-packet load balancing.

None

229.

229. What type of communication is used between HSRP members?

A. Unicast

B. Broadcast

C. Multicast

D. Layer 2 flooding

None

230.

230. When a host sends an outgoing packet to an HSRP group, which router provides the destination address for the default gateway?

A. Virtual router

B. Active router

C. Standby router

D. Monitor router

None

231.

231. Which timer must expire for a standby router in an HSRP group to become the active router?

A. Hello timer

B. Standby timer

C. Hold timer

D. Virtual timer

None

232.

232. Which port and protocol are used by Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) for communications?

A. UDP/1935

B. UDP/1985

C. UDP/1895

D. UDP/3222

None

233.

233. Which is a difference between HSRPv1 and HSRPv2?

A. HSRPv2 does not use hello packets.

B. HSRPv1 uses broadcasts, and HSRPv2 uses multicasts.

C. HSRPv1 supports IPv6.

D. HSRPv2 uses milliseconds.

None

234.

234. Which statement is correct about GLBP?

A. The active router is responsible for responding to clients with the virtual router’s MAC address.

B. The active virtual gateway will respond with a MAC address of the active router.

C. The active virtual gateway will respond with a MAC address of an active virtual forwarder.

D. The virtual router is responsible for responding to tracking requests.

None

235.

235. Which router is elected to become the GLBP active virtual gateway?

A. The router with the lowest priority

B. The router with the highest priority

C. The router with the lowest priority and lowest IP address

D. The router with the highest priority and highest IP address

None

236.

236. How many active virtual forwarders are supported per the GLBP group?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 16

D. 1,024

None

237.

237. Which command will allow Router B to always become the active router for HSRP?

A. Router(config-if)#standby 1 priority 150

B. Router(config-if)#standby 1 priority 70

C. Router(config-if)#hsrp 1 priority 150

D. Router(config-if)#hsrp 1 priority 90

None

238.

238. What is the maximum number of HSRPv2 groups that can be created?

A. 255

B. 256

C. 1,024

D. 4,096

None

239.

239. Your company is running a FHRP. You notice that the MAC address of the default gateway is 0000.0c9f.f123. Which FHRP is being employed?

A. HSRPv1

B. GLBP

C. HSRPv2

D. VRRP

None

240.

240. What is the definition of preemption for HSRP?

A. It allows the protocol to effectively load-balance per packet.

B. It watches an upstream interface and fails over when the interface goes down.

C. It ignores the priorities of the routers and elects an active router by highest IP address.

D. When a standby router comes online, it allows for a re-election of the active router.

None

241.

241. Which is a method of configuring HSRP so that traffic is not directed to one router?

A. Configure version 2 for all HSRP groups.

B. Configure an HSRP group per VLAN and alternate the priority above 100.

C. Configure PPPoE on the router interfaces.

D. Configure all routers in the HSRP as active routers.

None

242.

242. Which command will allow you to verify the state of the current router for HSRP?

A. RouterA#show hsrp

B. RouterA#show ip standby

C. RouterA#show standby

D. RouterA#show ip hsrp

None

243.

243. You have just changed the priority on Router A to 150, and it has not become the active router. All other routers have the default priority. What is wrong?

A. The default priority is 150.

B. The hold timer is set too high and needs to timeout.

C. The HSRP group is not set for preemption.

D. Router A’s IP address is too low.

None

244.

244. Which command will allow you to enable preemption for HSRP?

A. Router(config)#standby 1 preemption

B. Router(config-if)#standby 1 preemption

C. Router(config-if)#hsrp 1 preempt

D. Router(config-if)#standby 1 preempt

None

245.

245. Which command will configure VRRP on an interface with an IP address of 10.1.2.3?

A. Router(config)#vrrp 1 10.1.2.3 gi 0/0

B. Router(config-if)#vrrp 1 ip 10.1.2.3

C. Router(config-if)#vrrp 1 10.1.2.3

D. Router(config-if)#standby 1 10.1.2.3 Router(config-if)#standby 1 vrrp

None

246.

246. Refer to the following exhibit. You are running HSRP on Router A and Router B. You intermittently have ISP outages. What command should you configure to alert HSRP to the outage?

A. RouterA(config-if)#standby 1 interface tracking serial
0/0/1
RouterB(config-if)#standby 1 interface tracking serial
0/0/1
B. RouterA(config-if)#standby 1 tracking serial 0/0/1
RouterB(config-if)#standby 1 tracking serial 0/0/1
C. RouterA(config-if)#standby 1 track serial 0/0/1
RouterB(config-if)#standby 1 track serial 0/0/1
D. RouterA(config-if)#interface serial 0/0/1
RouterA(config-if)#standby 1 interface tracking
RouterA(config-if)#interface serial 0/0/1
RouterB(config-if)#standby 1 interface tracking

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

None

247.

247. Which command will allow you to see real-time diagnostics of HSRP?

A. Router#show ip hsrp

B. Router#debug ip hsrp

C. Router#debug standby

D. Router#debug ip standby

None

248.

248. Which statement is correct about GLBP?

A. GLBP allows for per-host load balancing.

B. The active virtual gateway will respond with a MAC address of the active router.

C. GLBP allows for per-subnet load balancing.

D. The virtual router is responsible for responding to tracking requests.

None

249.

249. Which command will allow you to set the hello and hold timers for HSRPv2 to a hello of 200 milliseconds and a hold of 700 milliseconds?

A. RouterA(config-if)#standby 1 timers msec 200 msec 700

B. RouterA(config-if)#standby 1 timers 200 msec 700 msec

C. RouterA(config-if)#standby 1 timers 700 msec 200 msec

D. RouterA(config-if)#standby 1 timers msec 700 msec 200

None

250.

250. You have four routers configured with HSRP. Four routers—Router A, Router B, Router C, and Router D—are configured with the default priority. You change the priority of Router A to 80, Router B to 100, Router C to 140, and Router D is unchanged. Which router will become the active router?

A. Router A will become the active router.

B. Router B will become the active router.

C. Router C will become the active router.

D. Router D will become the active router.

None

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