Welcome to your ENCORE-INFRASTRUCTURE-LAYER3 1. Which type of routing protocol uses LSAs and TLVs to support extended features? A. path vector B. link-state C. hybrid D. distance vector None 2. What are two characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) A. They can load balance across unequal metric cost paths. B. They use path attributes to determine the best loop-free path. C. They periodically send full routing table updates to directly connected neighbors. D. They provide routers with a synchronized identical map of the network. E. They use more CPU and memory resources than distance vector protocols do. 3. What data is used by OSPF and ISIS for loop prevention? A. hop count to the destination B. feasible distance calculation to the destination C. autonomous system path to the destination D. a synchronized map of the network None 4. Which routing protocol incorporates characteristics of both distance vector and link-state protocols? A. iBGP B. EBGP C. SIS D. EIGRP None 5. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships? A. by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers B. by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers C. by comparing known routes to information received in updates D. by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors E. by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers None 6. A router has installed several routes into the routing table. How will the router determine which route to use to forward packets? A. the lowest administrative distance B. the highest metric C. the lowest metric D. the longest prefix match None 7. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router? A. to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group B. to permit only unicast packets on the router C. to enable the router as an IPv6 router D. to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group None 8. Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router? A. to load-balance the traffic B. to act as a gateway of last resort C. to be used as a backup route D. to be the priority route in the routing table None 9. Which static route statement shows a recursive IPv6 static route? A. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe:1::/56 S0/0/0 B. ipv6 route 0::/0 S0/0/0 C. ipv6 route 0::/0 S0/0/0 254 D. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe:1::/56 S0/0/0 2001:db8:1000:10::1 E. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe:1::/56 2001:db8:1000:10::1 None 10. What is used by BGP to guarantee a loop free path to reach a destination? A. the count of router hops to reach a destination B. the cumulative cost as measured in bandwidth C. a record of each autonomous system that a routing advertisement has traversed D.a distance calculation based on cumulative delay and minimum bandwidth None 11. Refer to a portion of an EIGRP topology table. What is the reported distance of the successor route for 172.18.3.0/24? P 172.18.3.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 2172416 via 172.18.4.3 (2172416/28160), Serial0/0/1 P 172.18.5.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 2495120 via 172.18.6.3 (2495120/227692), Serial0/1/0 P 192.168.24.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 2684416 via 192.168.13.5 (2684416/2072316), Serial0/0/0 via 172.18.4.3 (2854912/2342912), Serial0/0/1 P 10.34.1.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 3072 via 10.13.1.3 (3072/2937), GigabitEthernet0/1 via 10.14.1.4 (5376/2937), GigabitEthernet0/2 A. 2684416 B. 2172416 D. 28160 None 12. What is the administrative distance of a directly connected interface A. 20 B. 5 C. 0 D. 1 None 13. Which protocol number is used to indicate that an EIGRP packet is encapsulated in an IP packet? A. 6 B. 17 C. 88 D. 89 None 14. Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router? A. It carries the geographical information of the organization. B. It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA. C. It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router. D. It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization. None 15. Which bandwidth value is used when calculating the EIGRP metric of a route? A. the slowest bandwidth of all outgoing interfaces between the source and destination B. the slowest bandwidth of all interfaces on the router C. the fastest bandwidth of all interfaces on the router D. the fastest bandwidth of all outgoing interfaces between the source and destination None 16. Which two metric weights are set to one by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose two.) A. k6 B. k3 C. k1 D. k4 E. k5 F. k2 17. Which routing protocol supports load balancing across links with unequal costs? A. OSPFv2 B. OSPFv3 C. EIGRP D. RIPv2 None 18. How has the EIGRP routing protocol improved by having interface delay measured in picoseconds instead of microseconds? A. It allows for a larger number of networks. B. It speeds up convergence. C. It improves performance and communication time between directly connected neighbor routers. D. It provides better metrics for high speed interfaces. None 19. What two conditions will result in an EIGRP route going into the active state? (Choose two.) A. The router is not sending queries. B. The successor is down. C. The network has been recalculated. D. There is no feasible successor. E. One neighbor has not met the feasibility condition. 20. Which feature of the EIGRP routing protocol can provide fast re-convergence without DUAL recomputation in the event of a route failure? A. having a route in the active state B. having a successor route C. having a feasible successor route D. having a route in the passive state None 21. What is the administrative distance of a static route? A. 5 B. 1 C. 20 D. 0 None 22. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take? A. The router will query neighbors for an alternate route. B. The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table. C. The router uses the default route. D. The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route. None 23. What are two benefits of applying summarization to networks within a company that uses the EIGRP routing protocol? (Choose two.) A. reduced impact when a route goes active B. reduced number of routers that must maintain a neighbor adjacency C. reduced number of Layer 3 switches required D. reduced number of hops the packet must travel throughout the network E. reduced size of routing tables 24. Refer to a portion of an EIGRP topology table: What is the metric for the successor route for 10.34.1.0/24? P 172.18.3.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 2172416 via 172.18.4.3 (2172416/28160), Serial0/0/1 P 172.18.5.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 2495120 via 172.18.6.3 (2495120/227692), Serial0/1/0 P 192.168.24.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 2684416 via 192.168.13.5 (2684416/2072316), Serial0/0/0 via 172.18.4.3 (2854912/2342912), Serial0/0/1 P 10.34.1.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 3072 via 10.13.1.3 (3072/2937), GigabitEthernet0/1 via 10.14.1.4 (5376/2937), GigabitEthernet0/2 A. 2937 B. 2495120 C. 3072 D. 227692 None 25. If all router Ethernet interfaces in an EIGRP network are configured with the default EIGRP timers, how long will a router wait by default to receive an EIGRP packet from its neighbor before declaring the neighbor unreachable? A. 10 seconds B. 15 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 30 seconds None 26. Refer to a portion of an EIGRP topology table: What is the metric for the feasible successor route for 10.34.1.0/24? P 172.18.3.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 2172416 via 172.18.4.3 (2172416/28160), Serial0/0/1 P 172.18.5.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 2495120 via 172.18.6.3 (2495120/227692), Serial0/1/0 P 192.168.24.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 2684416 via 192.168.13.5 (2684416/2072316), Serial0/0/0 via 172.18.4.3 (2854912/2342912), Serial0/0/1 P 10.34.1.0/24, 1 successors, __ is 3072 via 10.13.1.3 (3072/2937), GigabitEthernet0/1 via 10.14.1.4 (5376/2937), GigabitEthernet0/2 A. 3072 B. 2495120 C. 5376 D. 2937 None 27. What is the administrative distance of an EIGRP summary route? A. 110 B. 5 C. 90 D. 20 None 28. What is the administrative distance of an IS-IS route? A. 0 B. 5 C. 1 D. 115 None 29. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 should be learning the route for 10.123.187.0/24 via EIGRP. Which action resolves the issue without introducing more issues? A. Remove route redistribution in R2 for this route in OSPF. B. Use distribute-list to modify the route as an internal EIGRP route. C. Redistribute the route in EIGRP with metric, delay, and reliability. D. Use distribute-list to filter the external routes in OSPF. None 30. How do OSPF and EIGRP compare? A. Both OSPF and EIGRP use the concept of areas. B. OSPF and EIGRP use the same administrative distance. C. EIGRP shows successor and feasible successor routes, and OSPF shows all known routes. D. EIGRP shows all known routes, and OSPF shows successor and feasible successor routes. None 31. Which action resolves the issue? A customer reports that traffic is not passing on an EIGRP enabled multipoint interface on a router configured as below: interface Serial0/0/0 no ip address interface Serial0/0/0.9 multipoint ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.248 ip split-horizon eigrp 1 A. Enable split horizon. B. Disable poison reverse. C. Disable split horizon. D. Enable poison reverse. None 32. How does policy-based routing function? A. It schedules traffic using classification B. It is applied to all ingress unicast traffic received on an interlace C. It is applied to all egress unicast traffic on an interface D. It controls traffic using embedded event detectors None 33. In which way are EIGRP and OSPF similar? A. Both protocols support autosummarization. B. Both protocols use hello packets to discover neighbors. C. Both protocols support unequal-cost load balancing. D. Both protocols send updates using unicast addresses. 34. What is a difference between OSPF and EIGRP? A. OSPF is an advanced distance vector protocol. EIGRP is a link-state protocol. B. OSPF is a hybrid routing protocol. EIGRP is a link-state routing protocol. C. OSPF uses the DUAL algorithm. EIGRP uses the SPF algorithm. D. OSPF uses an administrative distance of 110. EIGRP uses an administrative distance of 170. None 35. How does the EIGRP metric differ from the OSPF metric? A. The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth only. The OSPF metric is calculated on delay only B. The EIGRP metric is calculated based on delay only. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay. C. The EIGRP metric Is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth only. D. The EIGRP metric Is calculated based on hop count and bandwidth. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay. None 36. What is one difference between EIGRP and OSPF? A. OSPF is a Cisco proprietary protocol, and EIGRP is an IETF open standard protocol. B. OSPF uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and EIGRP uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm C. EIGRP uses the variance command lot unequal cost load balancing, and OSPF supports unequal cost balancing by default. D. EIGRP uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and OSPF uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm None 37. In which two ways does the routing protocol OSPF differ from EIGRP? (Choose two.) A. OSPF supports an unlimited number of hops. EIGRP supports a maximum of 255 hops. B. OSPF provides shorter convergence time than EIGRP. C. OSPF is distance vector protocol. EIGRP is a link-state protocol. D. OSPF supports only equal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing. E. OSPF supports unequal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports only equal-cost load balancing. 38. Refer to the exhibit. Clients are reporting an issue with the voice traffic from the branch site to the central site. What is the cause of this issue? A. There is a routing loop on the network B. There is a high delay on the WAN links C. Traffic is load-balancing over both links, causing packets to arrive out of order D. The voice traffic is using the link with less available bandwidth None 39. In which way are EIGRP and OSPF similar? A. They both support unequal-cost load balancing B. They both support MD5 authentication for routing updates. C. They have similar CPU usage, scalability, and network convergence times. D. They both support autosummarization None 40. How do OSPF and EIGRP compare? A. OSPF and EIGRP us the same administrative distance. B. Both OSPF and EIGRP use the concept of areas. C. EIGRP shows an known routes, and OSPF shows successor and feasible successor routes. D. EIGRP shows successor and feasible successor routes, and OSPF shows all known routes. None 41. Which of the following protocols has a default administrative distance value of 90? A. RIP B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. BGP None 42. Which feature is supported by ElGRP but is not supported by OSPF? A. route summarization B. equal-cost load balancing C. unequal-cost load balancing D. route filtering None 43. Which feature of EIGRP is not supported in OSPF? A. load balancing of unequal-cost paths B. load balance over four equal-costs paths C. uses interface bandwidth to determine best path D. per-packet load balancing over multiple paths None 44. What is a difference between OSPF and EIGRP? A. OSPF uses a default hello timer of 5 seconds. EIGRP uses a default hello timer of 10 seconds. B. OSPF uses multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6. EIGRP uses multicast address 224.0.0.10. C. OSPF uses an administrative distance of 115. EIGRP uses an administrative distance of 160. D. OSPF uses IP protocol number 88. EIGRP uses IP protocol number 89. None 45. Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps? A. neighbor B. stub C. offset-list D. address-family None 46. Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose two) A. Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces B. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor C. EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default D. Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing E. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths 47. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer connected two routers using OSPF but the routers are not sharing routes. Which command completes the configuration? A. router ospf 1    no passive-interface GigabitEthernet5B. interface GigabitEthernet5no passive-interfaceC. router ospf 1network 172.16.252.0 0.0.0.255 area 0D. router ospf 1no passive-interface default A. Opção A B. Opção B C. Opção C D. Opção D None 48. Refer to the exhibit. R6 should reach R1 via R5>R2>R1. Which action resolves the issue? A. Decrease the cost to 2 between R6-R5-R2. B. Decrease the cost to 41 between R2 and R1. C. Increase the cost to 61 between R2 and R3. D. Increase the cost to 61 between R2-R3-R1. None 49. Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default? A. multipoint B. broadcast C. Ethernet D. point-to-point None 50. In OSPF, which LSA type is responsible for pointing to the ASBR router? A. type 1 B. type 2 C. type 3 D. type 4 None 51. Based on this interface configuration, what is the expected state of OSPF adjacency? A. Full on both routers B. not established C. 2WAY/DROTHER on both routers D. FULL/BDR on R1 and FULL/BDR on R2 None 52. When reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state? A. Mismatched OSPF network type B. Mismatched areas C. Mismatched MTU size D. Mismatched OSPF link costs None 53. Why would an architect use an OSPF virtual link? A. to allow a stub area to transit another stub area B. to connect two networks that have overlapping private IP address space C. to merge two existing Area Os through a nonbackbone D. to connect a nonbackbone area to Area 0 through another nonbackbone area None 54. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be added to enable GigabitEthemet 0/1 to participate in OSPF? A. SF_router (config-router)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 B. SF_rouier (conng)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1 C. SF_router (conflg-routerp)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1 D. SF_rouler (contlg-rouler)# network 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 None 55. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures OSPF and wants to verify the configuration. Which configuration is applied to this device? A. R1(config)#router ospf 1 R1(config-router)#network 192.168.50.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 B. R1(config)#router ospf 1 R1(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0 R1(config-router)#no passive-interface Gi0/1 C. R1(config)#interface Gi0/1 R1(config-if)#ip ospf enable R1(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast R1(config-if)#no shutdown D. R1(config)#interface Gi01 R1(config-if)#ip ospf 1 area 0 R1(config-if)#no shutdown A. Opção A B. Opção B C. Opção C D. Opção D None 56. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wanted to make R1 always elected as DR, R2 as BDR, and R3 as DROTHER but could not achieve the desired results. Which two configurations resolve the issue? (Choose two) A. On the R2 F0/0 interface, configure OSPF priority to 200 B. On the R1 F0/0 interface, configure OSPF priority to 202 C. On the R2 F0/0 interface, configure OSPF priority to 201 D. On the R1 F0/0 interface, configure OSPF priority to 255 E. On the R3 F0/0 interface, configure OSPF priority to 201 57. Which Cisco EIGRP K-values are set to zero by default? (Choose three.) A. Bandwidth B. Load C. Total Delay D. Reliability E. MTU 58. A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a router. The engineer wants to prevent having a route to 177.16.0.0/16 learned via OSPF. In the routing table and configures a prefix list using the command ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 5 deny 172.16.0.0/16. Winch two identical configuration commands must be applied to accomplish the goal? (Choose two.) A. distribute-list prefix OFFICE in under the OSPF process B. Ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 Ie 32 C. ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 ge 32 D. distribute-list OFFICE out under the OSPF process E. distribute-list OFFICE in under the OSPF process 59. How do EIGRP metrics compare to OSPF metrics? A. EIGRP metrics are based on a combination of bandwidth and packet loss, and OSPF metrics are based on interface bandwidth. B. EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm, and OSPF uses The DUAL algorithm C. The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is undefined D. The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is 110 None 60. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24? A. This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type. B. This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type. C. Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID D. Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID None 61. Which OSPF networks types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices? A. broadcast to nonbroadcast B. point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast C. broadcast to point-to-point D. point-to-multipoint to broadcast None 62. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet? A. It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs. B. It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers. C. It is used to check the database synchronization between routers. D. It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the LSDB. None 63. What are two characteristics of OSPF areas? (Choose two.) A. Area 0 is called the backbone area. B. Each OSPF area must be configured with a loopback interface. C. All OSPF areas must be directly connected to Area 0. D. All OSPF networks require the use of multiple areas. E. OSPF areas create a three-layer hierarchical design. F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in Area 1. 64. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.) A. The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match. B. The link interface subnet masks must match. C. The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router. D. The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command. E. The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command. F. The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address. 65. A network technician issues the following commands when configuring a router. What does the number 11 represent? R1(config)# router ospf 11 R1(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 A. the OSPF process ID on R1 B. the administrative distance that is manually assigned to R1 C. the area number where R1 is located D. the autonomous system number to which R1 belongs D. the cost of the link to R1 None 66. A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and must ensure that only specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network statement would configure the OSPF process for networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now located in the backbone area, and inject them into the OSPF domain? A. r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 B. r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 C. r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.15.255 area 1 D. r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 E. r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 1 F. r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 1 None 67. An administrator is configuring an OSPF router and would like the router to automatically advertise a default route into the OSPF domain even if there is no default route in the RIB. Which configuration will accomplish this? A. default-information originate always B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0 C. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 D. redistribute static None 68. Which two variables must match between two OSPF routers to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) A. K-values B. process IDs C. hello and dead intervals D. area IDs E. router priorities 69. In the planning stages for an OSPF deployment, which step can be taken to reduce router overhead by limiting the size of the link state databases, and LSA Type 1 and Type 2 propagation? A. Use redundant links and alternate paths between routers. B. Increase hello and dead interval timers. C. Ensure that the interfaces of all routers are configured for area 0. D. Divide the OSPF network into multiple areas. None 70. Which two statements describe OSPF route summarization? (Choose two.) A. OSPF can perform automatic summarization on major classful network boundaries even if no summarization commands are entered from the CLI. B. Once OSPF route summarization is configured, the summary route will be advertised even if none of the networks in the address range are in the routing table. C. Automatic OSPF route summarization is performed by the ABR. D. The area 51 range 172.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 command identifies area 51 as the area that contains the range of networks to be summarized. E. The metric of the summary route is equal to the lowest cost network within the summary address range. 71. What feature can be configured to filter routes as they are crossing an OSPF ABR? A. distribute list B. prefix list C. summarization D. route map None 72. Which LSA type is advertised by all OSPF routers? A. type 1 B. type 2 C. type 3 D. type 2 None 73. What period of time must elapse before an LSA is purged from the local LSBD if not updated with a new LSA? A. 900 seconds B. 1800 seconds C. 3600 seconds D. 7200 seconds None 74. What action does an ABR take when it receives a type 1 LSA? A. it drops the type 1 LSA. B. it floods the type 1 LSA into other nonbackbone areas. C. it creates a type 3 LSA referencing the network in the type 1 LSA and forwards it into other OSPF areas. D. it recreates the type 1 LSA into Area 0. None 75. Which LSA type is flooded by a designated router to other OSPF routers within the same area? A. type 1 B. type 2 C. type 3 D. type 4 None 76. What does an OSPF area contain? A. routers whose SPF trees are identical B. routers that share the same process ID C. routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs D. routers that share the same router ID None 77. The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0? A. area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0 B. area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248 C. area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0 D. area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248 None 78. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? A. OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments. B. OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID. C. OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use. D. OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies. None 79. Which two OSPFv3 LSAs advertise address prefix information? (Choose two.) A. type 1 B. type 2 C. type 4 D. type 8 E. type 9 80. Which statement describes the OSPFv3 configuration process? A. The network command is used to enable OSPFv3 on an interface. B. The OSPFv3 router ID is manually configured as a 64-bit value. C. An address family must be initialized before OSPFv3 is enabled on an interface. D. IPv6 routing must be enabled before the OSPFv3 process can start. None 81. What IPv6 address does an OSPFv3 router use as the destination address when sending hello packets to discover neighbors? A. FF02::5 B. FE80::2 C. FF02::6 D. FE80::1 None 82. Which is a difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? A. OSPFv3 uses a 128-bit router ID. B. OSPFv3 and OSPFv2 use different protocol ID numbers. C. OSPFv3 uses different packet types than OSPFv2. D. OSPFv3 does not have built in support for neighbor authentication. None 83. How are OSPFv3 routes that are learned from type 1 LSAs identified in the IPv6 routing table? A. O B. EX C. IA D. OI None 84. A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command? A. The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64. B. The router will be assigned a router ID of 64. C. The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64. D. The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s. None 85. What benefit is provided to OSPFv3 with the two new LSA types, type 8 and type 9? A. They redistribute NSSA LSAs into an area. B. They eliminate SPF calculations when interface addresses are added or changed. C. They permit area routers to locate ASBRs in other areas. D. They advertise default routes learned from other protocols into the OSPFv3 domain. None 86. Which type of LSA only exists on networks containing a DR? A. router B. network C. AS external D. summary None 87. Which type of LSAs are reduced through interarea summarization? A. type 1 LSAs from all OSPF routers B. type 4 LSAs from ASBRs C. type 3 LSAs from ABRs D. type 2 LSAs from DRs None 88. At what level does OSPF maintain a unique LSDB? A. area B. network C. link D. router None 89. Which OSPFv3 LSA type is used by ASBRs to announce routes learned through redistribution from other routing protocols? A. type 3 B. type 4 C. type 5 D. type 7 None 90. What TCP port is used by BGP to exchange messages between routers? A. 443 B. 58 C. 179 D. 22 None 91. What type of BGP message precedes the successful formation of a BGP peering session? A. keepalive B. established C. withdraw D. open E. update None 92. What is the order in determining the BGP router ID? A. statically defined, the highest IP address of any active interfaces, and the highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces B. statically defined, the highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces, and the highest IP address of any active interfaces C. the highest IP address of any active interfaces, statically defined, and the highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces D. the highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces, statically defined, and the highest IP address of any active interfaces None 93. Which BGP routers will become peers and share routing information? A. BGP routers that are configured with the same network command B. BGP routers that are configured with the same peer command C. BGP routers that are configured with the neighbor command D. BGP routers that share routing information with all routers in the same AS by default None 94. Which two statements describe the configuration differences when MP-BGP is applied using the IPv6 protocol compared to IPv4 protocol? (Choose two.) A. The IPv6 address family must be initialized and the neighbor activated. B. Routers with only IPv6 addressing must have the BGP RID statically defined. C. IPv4 addresses cannot be used to define a BGP RID. D. IPv6 uses multicast to establish neighbor sessions. E. Routers with only IPv6 addressing must use AS numbers beyond 65535. 95. A network administrator is configuring IPv6 route summarization on a BGP router. The objective is to aggregate the IPv6 networks from 2001:db8:0:0::/64 to 2001:db8:0:35::/64 into a single summary route. Which aggregation command should be used for the task? A. aggregate-address 2001:db8::/60 summary-only B. aggregate-address 2001:db8::/61 summary-only C. aggregate-address 2001:db8::/58 summary-only D. aggregate-address 2001:db8::/59 summary-only None 96. Which BGP state is the one where BGP initiates the TCP connection and sends an Open message to the sender? A. Passive B. Connect C. OpenSent D. Established None 97. Which BGP attribute includes a complete list of all the ASNs that the prefix advertisement has traversed from its source AS? A. Local Preference (LocPrf) B. Multiple-exit discriminator (MED) C. Weight D. AS_Path None 98. A company is deploying BGP multihoming to provide internet connection redundancy. Which method can be used to avoid the internet transit routing situation? A. deploying iBGP routing in all routers within the local AS B. ensuring that no IGP session is running on the local BGP routers C. designating a data center or a specific location to handle the internet transit traffic D. applying outbound BGP route policies that only allow for local BGP routes to be advertised None 99. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the condition when the BGP route-map TEST permit 40 command is processed and what is the result of processing? A. Only networks that do not match ACL3 will match and be allowed. B. Incoming networks that match ACL1, ACL2, and ACL3 will match and be allowed. C. All incoming networks that do not match ACL1, ACL2, and ACL3 will match, but will be dropped because no action is specified. D. All incoming networks that do not match ACL1, ACL2, and ACL3 will match and be allowed None 100. A company is deploying BGP multihoming to provide network connection redundancy for several branch locations. One of the network design objectives is to provide deterministic routing among company locations during failover by providing a specific location to handle branch transit traffic. Which two design criteria should be applied to the specific facility? (Choose two.) A. The bandwidth can be sized according to the traffic needs. B. The facility should be in a central place from all company locations. C. OSPF is the preferred IGP for the facility. D. The routing pattern is bidirectional and predictable. E. BGP route policies should apply to only allow for local BGP routes to be advertised. 101. A network administrator is configuring a prefix list with the ip prefix-list command. What is the best practice in dealing with the sequence number in creating a prefix list? A. Sequence numbers should leave enough space to accommodate additional entries. B. Sequence numbers should start with 1. C. Sequence numbers should be no higher than 100. D. Sequence numbers should be incremented by 2. None 102. A network administrator is configuring a prefix list with the command. Which two networks match the prefix match specification? (Choose two.) ipv6 prefix-list IPV6-1 seq 5 permit 2001:db8:abcd:30::/60 ge 61 le 63 A. 2001:db8:abcd:30::/60 B. 2001:db8:abcd:34::/62 C. 2001:db8:abcd:20::/62 D. 2001:db8:abcd:36::/63 2001:db8:abcd:60::/64 103. Which BGP state is the one where BGP waits for a KEEPALIVE or NOTIFICATION message from a neighbor so that the BGP session can be moved to Established? A. Attempt B. Down C. OpenConfirm D. Init None 104. Which three statements describe the weight attribute for BGP? (Choose three.) A. It is a Cisco-defined attribute. B. It is a nontransitive attribute that uses a 32-bit value called metric. C. It is not advertised to other routers. D. It is a 16-bit value assigned locally on the router. E. It is not advertised between eBGP peers and is typically used to influence the next-hop address for outbound traffic. F. It is a well-known discretionary path attribute and is included with path advertisements throughout an AS. 105. A network administrator is configuring a prefix list to match networks for BGP route filtering. Which two networks match the prefix match specification 10.224.0.0/12 ge 24 le 28 ? (Choose two.) A. 10.240.10.0/24 B. 10.224.10.0/12 C. 10.230.15.0/24 D. 10.239.255.240/28 E. 10.192.20.0/26 106. Which BGP attribute can be configured on IBGP speakers so they will choose a desired path out of the autonomous system to an outside network? A. local preference B. next hop C. MED D. aggregate None 107. Which two statements describe private BGP communities? (Choose two.) A. A private BGP community requires a route map configuration. B. Private BGP communities are used to signify no transit networks. C. An organization needs to register for a private BGP community. D. Private BGP communities are within the range of 0xFFFF0000 to 0xFFFFFFFF. E. A private BGP community uses the first 16 bits to represent its AS and the second 16 bits to represent a pattern. 108. A network administrator is configuring route summarization for received routes before advertising to the next peer with the commands. How will the aggregate route be advertised after the commands are entered? R1(config)# router bgp 65500 R1(config-router)# aggregate-address 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 as-set summary-only R1(config-router)# end A. The aggregate route will be advertised together with the smaller component network prefixes B. The advertised aggregate route will increase the hop counts as it indicates multiple autonomous systems. C. The aggregate route will be advertised as an atomic aggregate route. D. The aggregate route will be advertised with previous BGP path information. None 109. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to match networks for BGP route filtering. The administrator creates an ACE permit ip 10.0.64.0 0.0.63.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.192 . Which two networks match the ACE? (Choose two.) A. 10.0.128.0/25 B. 10.0.126.0/25 C. 10.0.130.0/24 D. 10.0.64.0/24 E. 10.0.63.0/26 110. Which BGP message is sent when an error is detected with the BGP session causing the BGP connection to close? A. Notification B. Database description C. Query D. Reply None 111. Which BGP attribute is used as a loop-prevention mechanism in BGP? A. Local Preference (LocPrf) B. Multiple-exit discriminator (MED) C. Origin D. AS_Path None 112. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 should be learning the route for 10.123.187.0/24 via EIGRP. Which action resolves the issue without introducing more issues? A. Remove route redistribution in R2 for this route in OSPF. B. Use distribute-list to modify the route as an internal EIGRP route. C. Redistribute the route in EIGRP with metric, delay, and reliability. D. Use distribute-list to filter the external routes in OSPF. None 113. Which action resolves the issue? A customer reports that traffic is not passing on an EIGRP enabled multipoint interface on a router configured as below: interface Serial0/0/0 no ip address interface Serial0/0/0.9 multipoint ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.248 ip split-horizon eigrp 1 A. Enable split horizon. B. Disable poison reverse. C. Disable split horizon. D. Enable poison reverse. None 1 out of 113 Time's up
